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CHM 113 FINAL EXAM The CHM 113 Final Exam is typically a comprehensive assessment covering General Chemistry I topics, with versions tailored for either lecture-based courses or laboratory-specific requirements. Core Lecture Topics If your exam is for the lecture component (General Chemistry I), it generally focuses on these fundamental areas: Atomic Structure & Periodic Trends: Electron configurations, ionization energy, atomic/ionic radii, and electronegativity. Chemical Bonding: Lewis structures, molecular geometry (VSEPR theory), formal charges, and polarity. Stoichiometry: Conversions between grams, moles, and molecules, identifying limiting reactants, and calculating percent yield. Thermochemistry: Enthalpy, Hess's Law, and calorimetry. Gases: Ideal gas laws ( ), Dalton's law of partial pressures, and Graham's law of effusion. Solutions: Molarity calculations, dilutions, and titration stoichiometry. Core Laboratory Topics If your exam is a Lab Final, it will emphasize practical application and data analysis: Safety Protocols: Proper use of safety goggles, handling chemical spills (e.g., using sodium bicarbonate for acids), and the "add acid to water" rule. Experimental Techniques: Thin layer chromatography (TLC), caffeine extraction, and conductimetric titrations. Data Analysis: Calculating average values, absolute error, and percent error. Physical Properties: Intensive vs. extensive properties and density calculations ( ). Scribd Scribd +5 Effective Study Resources Practice Exams: Highly effective for identifying knowledge gaps; many students use the CHM 113 Practice Exam Key to simulate test conditions. Active Recall: Use CHM 113 Review Flashcards for memorizing polyatomic ions, solubility rules, and periodic trends. Video Reviews: Comprehensive walkthroughs like Chad's Chemistry Reviews cover all major units in detail. Are you preparing for a lecture final or a lab final, and is there a specific experiment or topic you find most challenging? Ready to create a quiz? Use Canvas to test your knowledge with a custom quiz Get started undefined undefined undefined 19 sites CHEM 113 Final Exam Topics | PDF | Significant Figures - Scribd CHEM 113 Final Exam Topics. The document provides a review of topics covered in a chemistry final lab exam, including: 1) General ... Scribd CHEM 113 General Chemistry Laboratory Final 2022 - Scribd CHEM 113 General Chemistry Laboratory Final 2022. The document is a final exam for a General Chemistry Laboratory course, consisti... Scribd Chemistry 113 Final Exam Notes - Key Concepts & Lab Insights Students also viewed. CHM 141 Exam 1 Comprehensive Review & Answer Key. CHM 113 - Lab Report on Enthalpy of Formation of MgO. CHM ... Studocu Show all generate questions with answers with multipal choice and rationale in itaric ,,,,ready for uploading on stuvia CHM 113: General Chemistry I Final Exam Practice Below are high-yield practice questions designed to mimic the style of a standard General Chemistry I final. 1. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is NOT allowed for an electron in an atom? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: The angular momentum quantum number ( ) must be an integer ranging from to . If , the only possible value for is . Therefore, is mathematically impossible for the first energy level. 2. What is the molecular geometry of (Sulfur Tetrafluoride)? A) Tetrahedral B) See-saw C) Square Planar D) Trigonal Bipyramidal Answer: B Rationale: Sulfur has 6 valence electrons. In , it forms 4 bonds and has 1 lone pair (total of 5 electron domains). According to VSEPR theory, a 5-domain system with one lone pair adopts a see-saw molecular geometry to minimize repulsion. 3. A 2.50 g sample of an unknown gas occupies 0.850 L at 1.00 atm and 273 K. What is the molar mass of the gas? A) 32.0 g/mol B) 44.1 g/mol C) 65.8 g/mol D) 28.0 g/mol Answer: C Rationale: Using the ideal gas law ( ), we find moles. Molar mass is calculated by dividing mass by moles: . 4. In the reaction , which species is being oxidized? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Oxidation involves the loss of electrons. Zinc starts with an oxidation state of and ends as in . Since its oxidation number increases, it is the species being oxidized. 5. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of 50.0 g of water from 20.0°C to 50.0°C? (Specific heat of water = 4.184 J/g°C) A) 6.28 kJ B) 4.18 kJ C) 10.46 kJ D) 1.25 kJ Answer: A Rationale: Using : , which converts to approximately . Would you like me to generate more questions focusing on lab-specific techniques (like titrations and chromatography) or stay with lecture-based stoichiometry and bonding? 1-50 This set of 50 multiple-choice questions is designed for a CHM 113 (General Chemistry I) final exam review. It covers atomic structure, stoichiometry, bonding, gas laws, thermochemistry, and laboratory safety. CHM 113 General Chemistry I: Comprehensive Final Exam Review (50 Questions) 1. Which of the following is an intensive property of matter? A) Mass B) Volume C) Density D) Energy Answer: C Rationale: Intensive properties are independent of the amount of substance present. Density remains the same regardless of sample size, whereas mass and volume change. 2. A neutral atom of contains how many protons, neutrons, and electrons? A) 15 p, 16 n, 15 e B) 15 p, 31 n, 15 e C) 16 p, 15 n, 16 e D) 31 p, 15 n, 31 e Answer: A Rationale: Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15 (protons). In a neutral atom, protons = electrons. Neutrons are calculated as Mass Number (31) - Atomic Number (15) = 16. 3. Which set of quantum numbers is NOT permissible? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: The angular momentum quantum number ( ) must be less than . For , can only be 0 (the orbital). 4. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass? A) B) C) D) Answer: B Rationale: Dividing percentages by atomic masses gives a mole ratio of 3.33 C : 6.64 H : 3.33 O, which simplifies to a 1:2:1 ratio. 5. Which molecule has a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: has three bonding pairs and one lone pair on the central nitrogen atom, resulting in a trigonal pyramidal shape. 6. What is the oxidation state of sulfur in ? A) +2 B) +4 C) +6 D) -2 Answer: C Rationale: Hydrogen is +1 and Oxygen is -2. . 7. A gas at 2.0 atm and 300 K is heated to 600 K at constant volume. What is the new pressure? A) 1.0 atm B) 2.0 atm C) 4.0 atm D) 8.0 atm Answer: C Rationale: According to Gay-Lussac’s Law ( ), doubling the absolute temperature doubles the pressure. 8. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte? A) (Methanol) B) (Hydrofluoric acid) C) (Nitric acid) D) (Ammonia) Answer: C Rationale: Nitric acid is a strong acid that completely dissociates in water. and are weak, and methanol is a non-electrolyte. 9. How many moles are in 25.0 g of (Molar mass = 100.1 g/mol)? A) 0.250 mol B) 2.50 mol C) 4.00 mol D) 0.500 mol Answer: A Rationale: Moles = mass / molar mass. . 10. Which element has the highest first ionization energy? A) Li B) Na C) F D) Ne Answer: D Rationale: Ionization energy increases across a period and decreases down a group. Noble gases like Neon have the highest values due to their stable octets. 11. What is the pH of a 0.001 M solution of ? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 11 Answer: C Rationale: . Since is a strong acid, , so . 12. In an exothermic reaction, the enthalpy change ( ) is: A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Dependent on pressure Answer: B Rationale: Exothermic reactions release heat to the surroundings, meaning the final enthalpy is lower than the initial enthalpy ( ). Ready to create a quiz? Use Canvas to test your knowledge with a custom quiz Get started undefined undefined undefined 10 sites Something went wrong with the response, but here are the most relevant results: AceQuiz AI · Free AI Quiz & Question Generator: PDF to Quiz Online Create quiz in minutes, not hours. Simply upload a PDF, document, or paste text. Our AI analyzes the content and generates quiz automatically. Quizgecko · AI Quiz Maker - Quizgecko The #1 AI Quiz Maker for students and teachers. Turn notes, PDFs, and documents into interactive quizzes, flashcards, and complete study courses in seconds. Quizbot · Quizbot - AI Question Generator for Quizzes, Tests & Exams ... 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YouTube · The Organic Chemistry Tutor 2:19:08 General Chemistry 1 Exam 2 Review: 30 Question ... 14 Oct 2025 — chemistry is like math with its own science language when we're studying. the best way to get a good grade is to write out equatio... YouTube · Periodic Table Talk 1m 1-50 This document is formatted for direct upload to Stuvia. It covers the 50 most frequently tested concepts in General Chemistry I (CHM 113), ranging from atomic structure to equilibrium. CHM 113: General Chemistry I – Comprehensive 50-Question Final Exam Prep 1. Which of the following is an intensive property? A) Mass B) Volume C) Density D) Length Answer: C Rationale: Intensive properties do not depend on the amount of matter present. Density remains constant for a substance regardless of sample size, whereas mass and volume are extensive. 2. How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003040 L? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 Answer: B Rationale: Leading zeros are never significant. Captive zeros (between non-zeros) and trailing zeros after a decimal point are significant. The significant digits are 3, 0, 4, and 0. 3. An atom of contains how many protons, neutrons, and electrons? A) 15 p, 15 n, 15 e B) 15 p, 16 n, 15 e C) 31 p, 15 n, 31 e D) 16 p, 15 n, 16 e Answer: B Rationale: Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15 (15 protons/electrons). The mass number is 31; therefore, neutrons = 31 - 15 = 16. 4. Which element is a halogen in Period 4? A) Chlorine B) Bromine C) Iodine D) Krypton Answer: B Rationale: Halogens are in Group 17. Bromine is located in Period 4. Chlorine is Period 3, and Iodine is Period 5. 5. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O by mass? A) B) C) D) Answer: B Rationale: Dividing percentages by atomic masses gives 3.33 mol C, 6.67 mol H, and 3.33 mol O. Dividing by the smallest value (3.33) yields a 1:2:1 ratio. 6. Which of the following compounds is insoluble in water? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: According to solubility rules, most sulfates are soluble, but barium sulfate ( ) is a well-known exception and forms a precipitate. 7. What is the oxidation state of Manganese in ? A) +1 B) +4 C) +7 D) +8 Answer: C Rationale: K is +1, O is -2. . Solving for x gives +7. 8. Which transition represents the emission of a photon with the highest energy? A) to B) to C) to D) to Answer: A Rationale: Emission occurs when moving from a higher to a lower state. The gap between and is the largest energy difference in the hydrogen atom. 9. What is the electron configuration of ? A) B) C) D) Answer: B Rationale: Transition metals lose electrons from the highest energy s-orbital first. Neutral Fe is ; losing two electrons removes the electrons. 10. Which of the following has the largest atomic radius? A) Fluorine B) Cesium C) Lithium D) Iodine Answer: B Rationale: Atomic radius increases down a group and to the left across a period. Cesium is at the bottom left of the periodic table. 11. Which molecule contains a triple bond? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Nitrogen needs three electrons to complete its octet, resulting in a very strong triple bond. 12. The molecular shape of (Ammonia) is: A) Tetrahedral B) Trigonal Planar C) Trigonal Pyramidal D) Bent Answer: C Rationale: Nitrogen has 4 electron domains (3 bonds, 1 lone pair). The electron geometry is tetrahedral, but the molecular shape is trigonal pyramidal. 13. What is the hybridization of Carbon in ? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Carbon has four single bonds (4 domains), requiring four hybrid orbitals, which corresponds to . 14. If a gas volume is doubled at constant temperature, what happens to the pressure? A) It doubles. B) It stays the same. C) It is halved. D) It quadruples. Answer: C Rationale: According to Boyle’s Law ( ), pressure and volume are inversely proportional. 15. Which of the following is a strong acid? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Sulfuric acid is one of the seven common strong acids that completely dissociate in water. 16. Calculate the molarity of a solution containing 0.5 moles of in 2.0 L of solution. A) 1.0 M B) 0.25 M C) 4.0 M D) 0.5 M Answer: B Rationale: . 17. Which intermolecular force is the strongest in liquid water? A) Dispersion forces B) Dipole-dipole C) Hydrogen bonding D) Ionic bonding Answer: C Rationale: Water contains bonded to , which allows for strong hydrogen bonding between molecules. 18. What is the ΔH for an exothermic reaction? A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Dependent on pressure Answer: B Rationale: Exothermic reactions release heat to the surroundings, meaning the enthalpy of the system decreases (negative ΔH). 19. Which law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of partial pressures? A) Charles’s Law B) Dalton’s Law C) Avogadro’s Law D) Boyle’s Law Answer: B Rationale: Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures describes the additive nature of pressures in a mixture. 20. How many valence electrons does an atom of Sulfur have? A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: B Rationale: Sulfur is in Group 16; main group elements have valence electrons equal to their group number (minus 10 for groups 13-18). 21. What is the formal charge on the Carbon atom in ? A) -1 B) 0 C) +1 D) +2 Answer: B Rationale: . For Carbon: . 22. Which process is a chemical change? A) Ice melting B) Water boiling C) Iron rusting D) Sugar dissolving Answer: C Rationale: Rusting involves the formation of a new substance (iron oxide), whereas the others are physical phase changes or mixtures. 23. The "n" quantum number describes: A) Orbital shape B) Orbital orientation C) Energy level/Size D) Electron spin Answer: C Rationale: The principal quantum number ( ) indicates the main energy level and the relative size of the orbital. 24. In a titration, the point where the indicator changes color is the: A) Equivalence point B) Endpoint C) Neutral point D) Critical point Answer: B Rationale: The endpoint is the visual signal (color change) that the reaction is complete; the equivalence point is the theoretical stoichiometric completion. 25. What is the mass of 1 mole of ? A) 28.0 g B) 44.0 g C) 32.0 g D) 12.0 g Answer: B Rationale: . 26. Which element has the highest electronegativity? A) Francium B) Oxygen C) Fluorine D) Helium Answer: C Rationale: Fluorine is the most electronegative element on the Pauling scale (3.98). 27. A system releases 50 J of heat and does 20 J of work. What is ΔE? A) +70 J B) -70 J C) -30 J D) +30 J Answer: B Rationale: . Since heat is released ( ) and work is done by the system ( ), . 28. Which of these is a covalent compound? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Covalent bonds form between non-metals. and are both non-metals. 29. What is the bond angle in a linear molecule? A) 90° B) 109.5° C) 120° D) 180° Answer: D Rationale: Linear geometry involves two domains at opposite sides of the central atom. 30. Which gas deviates most from ideal behavior? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Polar gases with strong intermolecular forces (like hydrogen bonding in ) deviate most from ideal behavior. 31. The wavelength of light is inversely proportional to its: A) Speed B) Frequency C) Amplitude D) Intensity Answer: B Rationale: . As wavelength ( ) increases, frequency ( ) decreases. 32. How many orbitals are in the subshell? A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 7 Answer: C Rationale: The has 1, has 3, has 5, and has 7 orbitals. 33. What is the pH of a 0.001 M solution? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Rationale: . . 34. Which of the following is a pure substance? A) Air B) Salt water C) Distilled water D) Brass Answer: C Rationale: Distilled water consists only of molecules; the others are mixtures. 35. What is the limiting reactant when 2 mol of reacts with 2 mol of to form ? A) B) C) D) Neither Answer: A Rationale: The reaction is . 2 moles of need only 1 mole of . Thus, runs out first. 36. Specific heat is defined as the heat needed to raise 1 gram of substance by: A) 10°C B) 1°C C) 100°C D) 0°C Answer: B Rationale: This is the standard definition of specific heat capacity ( ). 37. Which of the following is a polar molecule? A) B) C) D) Answer: C Rationale: Water is bent and asymmetrical, leading to a net dipole moment. 38. The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that: A) Electrons fill the lowest energy first. B) No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers. C) Electrons prefer to be unpaired in orbitals. D) Energy is quantized. Answer: B Rationale: This ensures that each orbital holds a maximum of two electrons with opposite spins. 39. What is the density of a 10 g object with a volume of 5 mL? A) 0.5 g/mL B) 2.0 g/mL C) 50 g/mL D) 5.0 g/mL Answer: B Rationale: . 40. Which quantum number determines the shape of an orbital? A) B) C) D) Answer: B Rationale: The angular momentum quantum number ( ) defines whether it is an or orbital. 41. An endothermic process is one where: A) Heat is released. B) Heat is absorbed. C) Temperature decreases. D) No energy is exchanged. Answer: B Rationale: "Endo" means "into"—energy enters the system from the surroundings. 42. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? A) Sodium B) Magnesium C) Iron D) Aluminum Answer: B Rationale: Alkaline earth metals are in Group 2. 43. What is the correct name for ? A) Nitrogen oxide B) Dinitrogen tetroxide C) Nitrogen(IV) oxide D) Dinitrogen quadroxide Answer: B Rationale: Covalent compounds use Greek prefixes (di- for 2, tetra- for 4). 44. According to Kinetic Molecular Theory, gas particles: A) Have strong attractions. B) Move in random, straight-line motion. C) Lose energy when they collide. D) Take up significant volume. Answer: B Rationale: KMT assumes particles are in constant random motion and have negligible volume and attraction. 45. Which of these ions has a -2 charge? A) Nitrate B) Phosphate C) Sulfate D) Ammonium Answer: C Rationale: Sulfate is . Nitrate is , Phosphate is , Ammonium is . 46. Hess's Law states that ΔH for a reaction is: A) Path dependent. B) Path independent. C) Always positive. D) Equal to zero. Answer: B Rationale: Enthalpy is a state function; only the initial and final states matter. 47. In the lab, you should always add: A) Water to Acid B) Acid to Water C) Bases to Acids quickly D) Water to concentrated bases Answer: B Rationale: "AA" (Add Acid). Adding water to acid can cause dangerous splashing due to the heat of hydration. 48. Which tool is most precise for measuring volume? A) Beaker B) Erlenmeyer Flask C) Graduated Cylinder D) Volumetric Pipet Answer: D Rationale: Volumetric glassware is calibrated for a single, highly accurate volume. 49. What is the molar mass of ? A) 40.0 g/mol B) 23.0 g/mol C) 39.1 g/mol D) 58.5 g/mol Answer: A Rationale: . 50. Which is a characteristic of a base? A) Tastes sour B) Turns litmus red C) Feels slippery D) Reacts with metals to produce Answer: C Rationale: Bases feel slippery (due to saponification of oils on skin) and turn litmus paper blue. Would you like me to convert this into a PDF-ready format or add a formula sheet for the upload? Ready to create a quiz? Use Canvas to test your knowledge with a custom quiz Get started 3 sentence description for stuvia upload This comprehensive study guide features 50 high-yield multiple-choice questions covering every major unit of the General Chemistry I (CHM 113) curriculum. Each question includes a detailed rationale in italics to explain the underlying chemical principles and help you avoid common pitfalls. It is the perfect resource for final exam preparation, focusing on stoichiometry, bonding, thermochemistry, and laboratory safety. Would you like a bonus list of key formulas or a polyatomic ion cheat sheet to include as a free preview? RCFE ADMINISTRATOR TEST (CALIFORNIA RCFE ADMINSTRATOR TEST) The California RCFE Administrator Certification Exam is a state-required assessment administered by the California Department of Social Services (CDSS) for individuals seeking to manage Residential Care Facilities for the Elderly. Assisted Living Education Assisted Living Education +1 Exam Structure & Mechanics Format: 100 multiple-choice questions. Time Limit: 2 hours (120 minutes). Passing Score: 70% or higher. Type: Open-book; you may use printed copies of Title 22 regulations and Health & Safety Codes, but no personal notes or electronic devices are allowed. Attempts: You have up to 3 attempts to pass within 60 days of completing your Initial Certification Training Program (ICTP). Assisted Living Education Assisted Living Education +4 Core Content Areas (Title 22 Focus) The exam evaluates competency in daily operations and regulatory compliance. Key topics include: Resident Rights: Protections for dignity, privacy, and the right to refuse medical care. Admission & Retention: Procedures for assessments, admission agreements, and prohibited health conditions. Medication Management: Safe handling, storage, and documentation of resident medications. Health & Safety: Disaster and fire emergency plans, food service/nutrition, and facility maintenance. Staffing Requirements: Administrator qualifications, initial and ongoing staff training, and background clearances. Sample Practice Questions Question Correct Answer Rationale What is the maximum allowable temperature for resident hot water? 105°F to 120°F To prevent scalding and ensure resident safety. How often must fire drills be conducted on each shift? Every 3 months Title 22 requires quarterly drills for all shifts. How many days does a licensee have to notify the DSS of a change in administrator? 30 days Regulatory notification is required within 30 working days of the change. What is the required staff-to-resident ratio at night for facilities with 16-100 residents? One awake staff At least one staff member must be awake and on duty at all times during the night. Study Strategies for Success Organize Your Regulations: Tab your printed Title 22 Regulations by chapter (e.g., Medications, Admissions) for quick retrieval during the open-book exam. Focus on Searchability: Since the test is timed, knowing where to find an answer is more important than memorizing every specific code. Official Resources: Register for the exam through the CDSS Administrator Certification Bureau. Do you need a list of approved training vendors in your area or more specific practice questions on medication and dementia care? undefined undefined undefined 14 sites Free RCFE Practice Test : Exam Questions & Study Guide 30 Jan 2026 — RCFE Test Format & Content. The RCFE administrator test is structured to evaluate your competency in managing daily operations and... Practice Test Geeks RCFE Administrator Certification for California - Assisted Living Education * What is RCFE Administrator Class? This is the State required 80 hour RCFE training class to earn an administrator certification ... Assisted Living Education California RCFE Administrator Practice Exam - Sebron University * What is the California RCFE Administrator Certification Exam? Everyone who wishes to become a California Residential Care Facili... Sebron University Show all 1-50 This 50-question practice set is designed for the California RCFE Administrator Certification Exam. It focuses on Title 22 Regulations, which govern the operations of Residential Care Facilities for the Elderly. Section 1: General Operations & Capacity 1. "Capacity" is defined by Title 22 as: A) The total number of rooms in a facility. B) The maximum number of persons authorized to be provided services at any one time. C) The number of residents currently living in the facility. D) The square footage available for resident care. Answer: B Rationale: Per Section 87101, capacity refers to the legal maximum number of individuals a facility is licensed to serve simultaneously. 2. A "waiver" in an RCFE setting refers to: A) A resident's refusal of medical treatment. B) A variance to a specific regulation based on facility-wide need or circumstance. C) Permission for a resident to leave the facility grounds unescorted. D) A discount on licensing fees. Answer: B Rationale: Waivers allow for specific regulatory deviations approved by the Department of Social Services (DSS). 3. What is the minimum age required to be a certified RCFE Administrator? A) 18 B) 21 C) 25 D) 30 Answer: B Rationale: Administrators and supervisors must be at least 21 years of age to manage a facility. 4. What is the minimum age required for a caregiver who is not an administrator? A) 16 B) 18 C) 21 D) 25 Answer: B Rationale: Staff members who supervise employees or provide direct care must be at least 18 years old. 5. For a facility licensed for 50 or more residents, the Administrator must have: A) A high school diploma only. B) 1 year of experience in a similar field. C) 2 years of college and 3 years of experience providing residential care. D) A nursing degree. Answer: C Rationale: Larger facilities (50+ beds) require higher educational and experience standards for administrators. Section 2: Health, Safety, & Environment 6. Faucets used by residents for personal care must deliver hot water between: A) 90°F and 100°F B) 105°F and 120°F C) 120°F and 135°F D) 100°F and 115°F Answer: B Rationale: This temperature range is strictly mandated by Title 22 to prevent scalding while ensuring hygiene. 7. Resident rooms must be heated to a minimum of: A) 65°F B) 68°F C) 70°F D) 72°F Answer: B Rationale: Facilities must maintain a minimum temperature of 68°F to ensure resident comfort and safety. 8. In areas of extreme heat, the facility must be cooled to at least: A) 75°F B) 78°F to 85°F C) 30 degrees less than the outside temperature D) Both B and C Answer: D Rationale: Regulations require cooling between 78-85°F or 30 degrees below the outdoor temperature in extreme heat zones. 9. How often must fire drills be conducted on each shift? A) Monthly B) Every 3 months (Quarterly) C) Every 6 months D) Annually Answer: B Rationale: Quarterly drills on every shift ensure all staff and residents are prepared for emergencies. 10. What is the maximum temperature allowed for a resident refrigerator? A) 32°F B) 36°F C) 40°F D) 45°F Answer: C Rationale: To prevent foodborne illness, refrigerators must not exceed 40°F. Section 3: Staffing & Training 11. How many hours of initial training must a staff member who assists with Activities of Daily Living (ADLs) receive? A) 4 hours B) 10 hours C) 20 hours D) 40 hours Answer: B Rationale: New staff must complete 10 hours of initial training within their first 4 weeks. 12. Following initial training, how many hours of annual training are required for ADL staff? A) 4 hours B) 8 hours C) 12 hours D) 20 hours Answer: A Rationale: Annual continuing education requires a minimum of 4 hours for staff assisting with ADLs. 13. In facilities with 16–100 residents, the night staffing requirement is: A) One staff member on call. B) One staff member who can be asleep. C) At least one awake staff member on duty. D) Two awake staff members on duty. Answer: C Rationale: Safety regulations for mid-sized facilities mandate at least one awake person during night shifts. 14. Are volunteers allowed to be part of the facility's official staffing plan? A) Yes, if they have fingerprints on file. B) Yes, if they are supervised. C) No, they may be utilized but not included in the staffing plan. D) Only in facilities with fewer than 6 residents. Answer: C Rationale: Volunteers do not count toward mandatory staffing ratios. 15. How long must personnel records be retained by the facility? A) 1 year B) 3 years C) 5 years D) Permanently Answer: B Rationale: Personnel records must be kept for at least 3 years after employment ends. Section 4: Resident Rights & Records 16. What is the minimum ratio of toilets and washbasins per resident? A) 1 per 4 residents B) 1 per 6 residents C) 1 per 8 residents D) 1 per 10 residents Answer: B Rationale: Facilities must provide at least one toilet and washbasin for every six residents. 17. Written incident reports must be submitted to the licensing agency within how many days? A) 24 hours B) 3 days C) 7 days D) 10 days Answer: C Rationale: Any major incident (illness, injury, death) requires a written report within 7 days. 18. How long must a facility keep copies of reports for stolen items? A) 6 months B) 12 months C) 24 months D) 36 months Answer: B Rationale: Records of potentially stolen items must be maintained for 12 months. 19. Admissions agreements are automatically terminated upon: A) The resident moving to another facility. B) The resident's death. C) 30 days of non-payment. D) Change in facility ownership. Answer: B Rationale: Agreement obligations terminate upon the resident's death. 20. Which of the following is NOT required to be in a resident's personnel record? A) Background clearance B) Training logs C) Mother’s maiden name D) Employment application Answer: C Rationale: Sensitive but irrelevant personal data like a mother's maiden name is not a regulatory requirement. Section 5: Medications & Nutrition 21. Medication records must be kept for how long after a resident leaves? A) 1 year B) 3 years C) 5 years D) 7 years Answer: B Rationale: Medication documentation must be retained for at least 3 years. 22. Which of the following cannot be used as a beverage/drink in an RCFE? A) Tap water B) Fruit juice C) Powdered milk D) Reconstituted juice Answer: C Rationale: Powdered milk is prohibited for use as a beverage but may be used in cooking. 23. How far in advance must menus be posted? A) 24 hours B) 3 days C) 1 week D) 1 month Answer: C Rationale: Menus must be posted one week in advance and kept on file for 30 days. 24. What is the maximum allowable time between the evening meal and breakfast? A) 12 hours B) 14 hours C) 15 hours D) 16 hours Answer: C Rationale: No more than 15 hours may elapse between the third and first meal of the day. 25. A facility with 50 or more residents must have a full-time employee trained in: A) Nursing B) Food services C) Social work D) Physical therapy Answer: B Rationale: Large facilities must employ a dedicated, trained food service professional. Section 6: Specialized Care & Admission 26. Bed rails that extend the entire length of the bed are: A) Required for all residents with mobility issues. B) Prohibited unless the resident is on hospice. C) Encouraged to prevent falls. D) Standard equipment for memory care units. Answer: B Rationale: Full-length bed rails are considered restraints and are only allowed under strict hospice guidelines. 27. A written report of any eviction must be sent to the licensing agency within: A) 24 hours B) 3 days C) 5 days D) 30 days Answer: C Rationale: Licensing must be notified within 5 days of an eviction notice. 28. Which sign must be posted if oxygen is in use? A) No Open Flames B) No Smoking - Oxygen in Use C) High Pressure Area D) Medical Gas Storage Answer: B Rationale: This specific signage is required in any facility where oxygen is present. 29. The medical assessment of a resident must determine their: A) Financial status B) Ambulatory status C) Political affiliation D) Previous employment Answer: B Rationale: Knowing if a resident is ambulatory is critical for fire safety and evacuation planning. 30. If a licensee Safeguards resident cash resources of $750 or less, they must have a bond of: A) $500 B) $750 C) $1,000 D) $1,500 Answer: C Rationale: A surety bond of at least $1,000 is required for safeguarding even small amounts of cash ($750 or less). Section 7: Facility Maintenance & Reporting 31. Grab bars are required in all resident bathtubs and showers. A) True B) False Answer: A Rationale: Title 22 requires grab bars in all bathing areas; they are not optional upon resident request. 32. Pesticides may be stored in the kitchen if kept in a separate cabinet from food. A) True B) False Answer: B Rationale: Pesticides and other poisons must be stored in a locked area completely separate from food supplies. 33. Linen should be changed at a minimum of: A) Twice a month B) Once a week C) Every other day D) Monthly Answer: B Rationale: Regulations mandate weekly linen changes or more often if soiled. 34. The licensee must notify the DSS within ___ working days of admitting a hospice resident. A) 2 days B) 5 days C) 10 days D) 30 days Answer: B Rationale: Hospice admissions must be reported in writing within 5 working days. 35. A "deficiency" is defined as: A) A resident missing a meal. B) A failure to comply with DSS regulations. C) A staff member calling out sick. D) A low bank balance for the facility. Answer: B Rationale: In regulatory terms, a deficiency is any violation of Title 22 rules. Section 8: Miscellaneous Regulations 36. A change in the facility's mailing address must be reported within: A) 5 days B) 10 days C) 15 days D) 30 days Answer: B Rationale: Address changes must be reported to the department within 10 days. 37. How many residents can be served by a facility with 16-49 beds that has one staff member primarily responsible for activities? A) 6-15 residents B) 16-49 residents C) 50+ residents D) All of the above Answer: B Rationale: Facilities of this size must have a designated staff member for activity organization. 38. "California Clearance" means an individual has no convictions reported by: A) FBI B) Department of Justice (DOJ) C) Local Police D) Highway Patrol Answer: B Rationale: Clearance is based on DOJ records. 39. A signal system must: A) Operate from each resident room. B) Identify the specific room calling. C) Transmit a signal to central staff. D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: All these features are required for a compliant resident call system. 40. Are staff permitted to perform blood sugar testing if a resident cannot do it themselves? A) Yes, if they are trained. B) No, unless they are a licensed medical professional (RN/LPN). C) Only in an emergency. D) Only if the resident provides the equipment. Answer: B Rationale: Standard RCFE staff are not permitted to perform invasive medical procedures. (Questions 41–50 summarize additional key timeframes and common trivia for the exam) 41. Plan of correction fees are assessed when: A) A facility fails to fix a deficiency by the due date. B) A facility submits an application. C) A resident moves out. D) A staff member is hired. Answer: A 42. Freezer temperature requirement: A) 32°F B) 10°F C) 0°F D) -10°F Answer: C 43. Timeframe for reporting fires or explosions to DSS: A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 15 days Answer: A 44. Is an organizational chart required for a 10-bed facility application? A) Yes B) No, a list of positions and hours is sufficient. Answer: B 45. Fee to decrease the licensed capacity of a facility: A) $0 B) $25.00 C) $50.00 D) $100.00 Answer: B 46. Maximum time to keep fresh, perishable foods: A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 1 week Answer: B 47. Minimum height of grab bars in showers: A) 30 inches B) 33-36 inches C) 40 inches D) Varies by resident height Answer: B 48. Non-skid mats must be in all tubs/showers regardless of grab bars. A) True B) False Answer: A 49. An eviction notice for non-payment is typically: A) 3 days B) 10 days C) 30 days D) 60 days Answer: C 50. To renew an administrator certificate, one must apply: A) Within 30 days of expiration. B) Prior to the expiration date. C) Only if requested by DSS. D) Every 5 years. Answer: B Would you like a three-sentence description for your Stuvia upload, or should I generate a formula and timeframe cheat sheet for these regulations? Ready to create a quiz? Use Canvas to test your knowledge with a custom quiz Get started 14 sites RCFE Test Practice Flashcards - Quizlet The admin for a facility licensed for ___shall have 2 years college and 3 years experience providing care to the elderly 87405. 15... Quizlet AITExam - Nursing Home Administrator Exam practice tests STATE EXAMINATION CONTENT. The State Examination consists of 100 multiple choice questions. The content of the examination include... AITExam RCFE Title 22 Exam with correct Answers - Stuvia 26 Jun 2023 — California Clearance; 87101 c.1. - Answer- an individual has no felony or misdemeanor convictions reported by the California Depar... Stuvia Show all 51-100 This second half of the practice exam continues focusing on Title 22, Division 6, Chapter 8 regulations, specifically covering Hospice, Dementia Care, Postural Supports, and Eviction Procedures. Section 9: Specialized Care (Dementia & Hospice) 51. In a facility with a dementia waiver, "auditory/visual exit alarms" must: A) Be loud enough to be heard throughout the entire neighborhood. B) Only be used if a resident has a history of wandering. C) Not replace the need for adequate staffing. D) Be turned off at night. Answer: C Rationale: Devices like exit alarms are safety supplements; Title 22 emphasizes that technology never replaces the regulatory requirement for physical staff supervision. 52. How often must the "Dementia Care" plan be updated for an individual resident? A) Weekly B) Monthly C) Annually, or as the resident's condition changes D) Every 2 years Answer: C Rationale: Significant changes in cognitive or physical status require an immediate update to the appraisal and plan of care. 53. Before admitting a resident with a "Restricted Health Condition," the facility must: A) Check if they have enough staff to provide 24/7 nursing. B) Ensure the condition is covered under the facility’s plan of operation. C) Increase the resident's rent by 20%. D) Notify the local police department. Answer: B Rationale: Facilities must have specific "Procedures for Restricted Health Conditions" in their approved plan of operation before accepting residents with needs like catheters or stage 1-2 pressure sores. 54. Which of the following is considered a "Prohibited Health Condition" (cannot be cared for in an RCFE)? A) Stage 1 Pressure Sore B) Controlled Diabetes C) Stage 3 or 4 Pressure Sore D) Use of a Walker Answer: C Rationale: Serious skin ulcers (Stage 3/4) require a level of skilled nursing that exceeds the license of an RCFE, unless a specific exception is granted via hospice. 55. A resident on Hospice care requires a "Hospice Care Plan." Who is responsible for the medical portion of this plan? A) The RCFE Administrator B) The Resident's family C) The Hospice Agency D) The DSS Licensing program Answer: C Rationale: While the facility coordinates, the licensed Hospice Agency is responsible for the professional medical components of the care plan. Section 10: Rights, Evictions, & Appeals 56. A "Notice of Eviction" for non-payment of rent requires a minimum notice of: A) 3 Days B) 15 Days C) 30 Days D) 60 Days Answer: C Rationale: Under Title 22, residents must be given at least 30 days' written notice for eviction due to non-payment. 57. If a resident is deemed a "threat to themselves or others," a facility may request: A) An immediate 3-day eviction with DSS approval. B) A 24-hour lock-in. C) To sedate the resident immediately. D) To move the resident to the hallway. Answer: A Rationale: For urgent safety issues, a facility can apply for a 3-day eviction, but it MUST have prior written approval from the Department of Social Services. 58. How many days does a resident have to appeal an eviction notice? A) 5 Days B) 10 Days C) 15 Days D) No appeal is allowed Answer: B Rationale: Residents or their representatives have 10 days to file an informal or formal appeal against an eviction notice. 59. Can a facility charge a "Pre-Admission Fee" that is non-refundable? A) No, never. B) Yes, but the refund policy must be clearly stated in the Admission Agreement. C) Only if the fee is under $100. D) Only if the resident is under 65. Answer: B Rationale: Pre-admission fees are legal, but they must be transparently disclosed in the signed contract. 60. Admission Agreements must be signed no later than: A) 7 days after admission. B) 3 days prior to admission. C) The day of admission. D) 30 days after admission. Answer: C Rationale: To protect both parties, the agreement must be executed on or before the first day of residency. Section 11: Medication Management & Records 61. Centrally stored medications must be kept in: A) A resident's nightstand. B) A locked area or cabinet. C) The facility kitchen. D) The Administrator's office. Answer: B Rationale: To prevent unauthorized access or accidental ingestion, all medications must be secured. 62. If a resident's medication is discontinued, the facility must: A) Throw it in the trash immediately. ) Flush it down the toilet. C) Destroy it and have the destruction witnessed by two people. D) Give it to another resident with the same prescription. Answer: C Rationale: Destruction of meds requires documentation and a witness to prevent drug diversion. 63. "PRN" medications (as needed) may be assisted by staff ONLY if: A) The staff member thinks the resident needs it. B) The resident can clearly communicate their need for the medication. C) It is a vitamin. D) The resident's family calls and asks for it. Answer: B Rationale: For non-medical staff, the resident must be able to self-identify the need (e.g., "My head hurts, I need my PRN Tylenol"). 64. A "Medication Error" must be reported to: A) The physician. B) The resident's representative. C) The Licensing Agency (via incident report). D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: Patient safety requires transparent communication with the doctor, family, and the state. 65. Which of the following is required on a prescription label? A) Resident's name. B) Prescribing physician's name. C) Expiration date. D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: All these elements are required for safe administration and regulatory compliance. Section 12: Environmental & Food Safety 66. Pesticides and cleaning supplies must be: A) Kept under the sink. B) Stored in a locked room separate from food and residents. C) Kept in their original containers only. D) Both B and C. Answer: D Rationale: Safety protocols require separate storage and original labeling to prevent poisoning. 67. A facility with 7-15 residents must have how many "awake" staff at night? A) One awake staff. B) One staff member on call (can be asleep). C) Two awake staff. D) None required. Answer: B Rationale: For facilities with 15 or fewer residents, one staff member must be on the premises and available; they are not required to be awake. 68. Emergency exits must be: A) Locked at all times. B) Blocked by furniture to prevent wandering. C) Clearly marked and kept free of obstructions. D) Hidden from resident view. Answer: C Rationale: Fire safety requires a clear, marked path for evacuation. 69. How many days of non-perishable food must be kept on hand at all times? A) 2 Days B) 7 Days C) 14 Days D) 30 Days Answer: B Rationale: In case of disasters, a 7-day supply of dry/canned goods is required. 70. How many days of perishable food (milk, meat) must be kept on hand? A) 2 Days B) 7 Days C) 14 Days D) 30 Days Answer: A Rationale: Due to storage limitations, only a 2-day supply of fresh items is mandated. Section 13: Administrative Duties & Licensing 71. A "Change of Ownership" requires a new license application how many days in advance? A) 15 Days B) 30 Days C) 60 Days D) 90 Days Answer: C Rationale: Licensing needs significant lead time to process new ownership applications. 72. If a facility increases its capacity, the licensing fee is: A) Waived. B) The difference between the current fee and the new capacity fee. C) $500 flat fee. D) Doubled. Answer: B Rationale: The state charges the incremental difference for the higher capacity tier. 73. The "Licensee" is ultimately responsible for: A) Only the facility's finances. B) Compliance with all Title 22 regulations. C) The residents' medical bills. D) Hiring a cook. Answer: B Rationale: Regardless of who is hired, the license holder is legally responsible for the facility's compliance. 74. An "Initial Application" for an RCFE license is valid for how long? A) 6 Months B) 1 Year C) 2 Years D) Until the facility opens Answer: B Rationale: If the facility does not open within one year of the application, the applicant may need to restart the process. 75. How many hours of "Continuing Education" must an Administrator complete every 2 years? A) 10 Hours B) 20 Hours C) 40 Hours D) 80 Hours Answer: C Rationale: RCFE Administrators must complete 40 hours of approved CEUs to maintain certification. Section 14: Personnel & Staff Training 76. Staff who prepare or serve food must receive training in: A) Gourmet cooking. B) Safe food handling and sanitation. C) Accounting. D) Advanced first aid. Answer: B Rationale: Preventing foodborne illness is a primary regulatory concern. 77. An employee's "Health Screening" must be performed within: A) 24 hours of hire. B) 7 days after hire. C) 6 months prior to, or within 7 days after hire. D) The first year of employment. Answer: C Rationale: Staff must be medically cleared (including TB testing) to ensure they do not pose a risk to residents. 78. "Direct Care Staff" training must include: A) Resident rights. B) Psychosocial needs of the elderly. C) Physical needs (ADLs). D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: Training must be holistic, covering legal, social, and physical care. 79. Fingerprint clearances must be received: A) Before the employee has contact with residents. B) Within 30 days of hire. C) Every year. D) Only for the Administrator. Answer: A Rationale: Background checks must be "cleared" or "transferred" before a person starts working. 80. If an employee is fired for misconduct, the facility must notify the DSS within: A) 24 hours. B) 3 days. C) 7 days. D) 15 days. Answer: C Rationale: Misconduct that could affect the safety of others must be reported to the state's central registry. Section 15: Final Review & Potpourri 81. Postural supports (like belts or wedges) require: A) A written order from a physician. B) Resident consent. C) Prior approval from DSS. D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: Because they limit movement, postural supports are highly regulated to prevent them from being used as restraints. 82. A "Life License" for a facility means: A) The license never expires unless revoked. B) The license is for the life of the owner. C) The license must be renewed every year. D) The license only applies to 100+ bed facilities. Answer: A Rationale: RCFE licenses are non-expiring; however, an "Annual Fee" is still required to keep them active. 83. The "Personal Rights" form (LIC 613C) must be given to: A) The resident only. B) The resident and their representative. C) The resident's doctor. D) The local fire marshal. Answer: B Rationale: Both the resident and their legal guardian/representative must be aware of their rights. 84. A "Self-Admission" of a resident means: A) The resident walked in off the street. B) The resident is their own legal representative. C) The resident admitted themselves to the hospital. D) The resident owns the facility. Answer: B 85. "Ambulatory" residents are those who can: A) Walk without any assistance. B) Walk with a cane or walker. C) Exit the building unassisted in an emergency. D) All of the above. Answer: D Rationale: In fire safety terms, an ambulatory person can leave the building without human help. 86. "Bedridden" status must be reported to: A) The Fire Marshal within 48 hours. B) The DSS within 24 hours. C) The resident's church. D) The local pharmacy. Answer: A Rationale: The Fire Marshal needs to know the location of bedridden residents for rescue planning. 87. How many toilets are required for 12 residents? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Rationale: 1 toilet per 6 residents ( ). 88. Can an Administrator manage more than one facility? A) No, never. B) Yes, with DSS approval for up to two facilities (within a certain distance). C) Yes, up to 10 facilities. D) Only if they have a nursing degree. Answer: B 89. The facility's "License Number" must appear on: A) All advertisements. B) The facility's van/vehicle. C) The staff uniforms. D) The resident's mail. Answer: A Rationale: Public advertisements must display the license number for consumer protection. 90. How long is a "Provisional License" usually valid? A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 12 months D) 2 years Answer: C Rationale: It gives a new facility one year to reach full compliance before a permanent license is issued. 91. Can a resident's family provide the facility with medications? A) No, they must come from a pharmacy. B) Yes, if they are in the original pharmacy container. C) Yes, even if they are in a plastic baggie. D) Only if the family are doctors. Answer: B 92. A "Centrally Stored" medication record must include: A) The dose given. B) The time given. C) The initials of the staff member. D) All of the above. Answer: D 93. If a resident dies in the facility, the "Death Report" is due within: A) 24 hours by phone/fax, 7 days in writing. B) 1 hour. C) 30 days. D) No report is needed. Answer: A 94. The maximum capacity of a facility is determined by: A) The number of beds the owner wants. B) The Fire Marshal's clearance and DSS evaluation. C) The size of the parking lot. D) The number of staff hired. Answer: B 95. A resident has the right to "Privacy" in: A) Their medical records. B) Their phone calls. C) Their visits. D) All of the above. Answer: D 96. "The Department" refers to: A) The Police Department. ) The California Department of Social Services (CDSS). C) The Department of Motor Vehicles. D) The Health Department. Answer: B 97. Are residents allowed to have "locked" drawers in their rooms? A) No, for safety reasons. B) Yes, for securing personal belongings. C) Only if they pay extra. D) Only if the staff have the key. Answer: B 98. "Mandated Reporter" status applies to: A) Only the Administrator. B) All RCFE staff. C) Only the doctors. D) The residents' families. Answer: B Rationale: Every staff member is legally required to report suspected elder abuse. 99. How many hours of "Dementia-specific" training must staff have? A) 2 Hours B) 6 Hours C) 12 Hours (initial) + 8 Hours (annual) D) 40 Hours Answer: C 100. The RCFE Administrator certificate is valid for: A) 1 Year B) 2 Years C) 5 Years D) Life Answer: B Rationale: Certificates must be renewed every 2 years with proof of 40 hours of CEUs. Stuvia Pro-Tip: To increase your sales, I recommend uploading this as a "California RCFE 100-Question Master Study Guide". Next Steps: Do you want a Keywords/Definitions list for these regulations to add as a bonus page? Ready to create a quiz? Use Canvas to test your knowledge with a custom quiz Get started 100-150 This final section (Questions 101–150) covers the most granular details of Title 22, including specific Physical Plant requirements, Financial Bonding, Disaster Planning, and Employee Background Clearances. Section 16: Physical Plant & Maintenance 101. What is the minimum square footage required for a private bedroom in an RCFE? A) 60 sq. ft. B) 80 sq. ft. C) 100 sq. ft. D) 120 sq. ft. Answer: B Rationale: Title 22 requires a minimum of 80 square feet for a single-occupancy room, excluding closets and bathrooms. 102. What is the minimum square footage required per resident in a shared (double) bedroom? A) 40 sq. ft. B) 60 sq. ft. C) 80 sq. ft. D) 100 sq. ft. Answer: B Rationale: In a shared room, there must be at least 60 square feet per resident (120 sq. ft. total for two people). 103. A "Signal System" (call light) is required in facilities with how many residents? A) 6 or more B) 16 or more C) 50 or more D) All facilities regardless of size Answer: B Rationale: Facilities licensed for 16 or more residents must have a signal system that identifies the specific room calling for help. 104. How many residents may sleep in a single bedroom? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Rationale: No more than two residents are permitted to share a bedroom in an RCFE. 105. All window screens must be of what mesh size? A) 10 mesh per inch B) 16 mesh per inch C) 20 mesh per inch D) No specific size required Answer: B Rationale: Regulations specify 16-mesh-per-inch screens to prevent insects from entering the facility. Section 17: Administrative & Financial Bonding 106. If an Administrator’s certificate expires, how many days do they have to renew it with a delinquency fee? A) 10 days B) 30 days C) 60 days D) 90 days Answer: D Rationale: An administrator can renew an expired certificate within 90 days by paying a delinquency fee; after 90 days, they may have to retake the ICTP. 107. A surety bond is required if the facility handles how much resident money per month? A) Any amount over $50 B) Any amount over $100 C) Any amount over $500 D) Only if the amount exceeds $1,000 Answer: A Rationale: To protect resident assets, a bond is required if the licensee safeguards any resident cash, regardless of the amount (though the bond amount itself varies). 108. What is the bond amount required for safeguarding $1,500 of resident funds? A) $1,000 B) $1,500 C) $2,000 D) $3,000 Answer: C Rationale: The bond amount must be at least the next highest tier above the amount handled (Tier 1 is $1,000 for up to $750; Tier 2 is $2,000 for $751–$1,500). 109. How many days' notice must a licensee give to DSS before a change in the facility's mailing address? A) 5 days B) 10 days C) 15 days D) 30 days Answer: B Rationale: Section 87114 requires notification of an address change within 10 working days. 110. A "Plan of Operation" must include which of the following? A) Staff training plan B) Sample menus C) Admission policies D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: The Plan of Operation is the master blueprint for how the facility will comply with all Title 22 regulations. Section 18: Resident Records & Confidentiality 111. Resident records must be maintained for how many years after the resident is discharged? A) 1 year B) 3 years C) 5 years D) 10 years Answer: B Rationale: Title 22 mandates that all resident files be kept for 3 years following their departure or death. 112. Are residents allowed to see their own records? A) No, they are confidential to staff only. B) Yes, at any reasonable time. C) Only with a lawyer present. D) Only if the Administrator is present. Answer: B Rationale: Residents have the legal right to access and review their own personal and medical records kept by the facility. 113. A "Medical Assessment" must be updated how often? A) Every 6 months B) Every 12 months C) Only when the resident gets sick D) Every 2 years Answer: B Rationale: An annual medical assessment (LIC 602) is required to ensure the facility can still meet the resident's needs. 114. The "Appraisal of Needs" (LIC 603) must be completed: A) Within 30 days of admission. B) Prior to admission. C) After the resident has lived there for 6 months. D) Only for dementia residents. Answer: B Rationale: The pre-admission appraisal ensures the resident is appropriate for the RCFE level of care. 115. Which of the following must be kept in the resident’s file? A) Admission agreement B) Physician orders C) Personal rights form signed by the resident D) All of the above Answer: D Rationale: These are the core documents required for every resident file under Section 87506. Section 19: Disaster Planning & Emergencies 116. A written "Disaster and Mass Casualty Plan" must be kept: A) In a safe in the Administrator's home. B) On the facility premises in a central location. C) At the local fire station. D) Locked in the resident's file. Answer: B Rationale: The plan must be accessible to all staff at all times in the event of a real emergency. 117. How often must the Disaster Plan be reviewed with all staff? A) Monthly B) Quarterly C) Annually D) Every 2 years Answer: C Rationale: While fire drills are quarterly, a full review of the disaster response plan must happen at least once a year. 118. In the event of a facility evacuation, the licensee must notify DSS within: A) 1 hour B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 7 days Answer: B Rationale: Any emergency that results in the displacement of residents must be reported to licensing within 24 hours. 119. A "First Aid Kit" is required to be maintained in: A) The kitchen only. ) The Administrator's office. C) Every facility. D) Only facilities with 50+ residents. Answer: C Rationale: Every RCFE, regardless of size, must have a fully stocked and accessible first aid kit. 120. Staff must be trained in First Aid within how many days of hire? A) 7 days B) 30 days C) 60 days D) Immediately (prior to working with residents) Answer: D Rationale: At least one person with current first aid/CPR certification must be on-site at all times. Section 20: Background Clearances & Reporting 121. "Trustline" is a registry for: A) Licensed administrators. B) Caregivers in small facilities (6 or fewer) not otherwise licensed. C) Resident bank accounts. D) Hospice nurses. Answer: B Rationale: Trustline is the California registry for license-exempt child care and certain elder care providers. 122. If a staff member is arrested for a crime, the licensee must notify DSS within: A) 24 hours B) 3 days C) 10 days D) 30 days Answer: B Rationale: Criminal record updates or arrests of cleared individuals must be reported within 3 working days. 123. A "Criminal Record Statement" (LIC 508) must be signed by: A) The resident. B) Every employee and volunteer. C) Only the Administrator. D) The resident's doctor. Answer: B Rationale: Anyone with a background clearance must sign a statement disclosing any prior criminal convictions. 124. Can a person with a "Criminal Record Exemption" work in an RCFE? A) No, never. B) Yes, if the exemption was granted by the DSS. C) Only if they don't touch residents. D) Only in the kitchen. Answer: B Rationale: An exemption means the state has reviewed the crime and determined the person is fit to work in the facility. 125. The cost of fingerprinting and background checks is paid by: A) The State of California. B) The employee or the licensee (as agreed upon). C) The residents. D) The Fire Marshal. Answer: B Rationale: This is a private cost of employment, not a state-funded expense. Section 21: Evictions & Transfers 126. If a facility closes, how many days' notice must be given to residents? A) 15 days ) 30 days C) 60 days D) 90 days Answer: C Rationale: To allow for safe relocation, a 60-day notice is required for facility closures. 127. A resident may be evicted with a 3-day notice if they: A) Fail to pay rent. B) Engage in behavior that is a threat to their own health or safety or that of others. C) Refuse to eat the facility's food. D) Complain about the Administrator. Answer: B Rationale: Safety threats allow for an expedited eviction, provided DSS grants written permission. 128. If a resident is being evicted, the facility must provide: A) Only a verbal warning. B) A written notice with the specific reason for eviction. C) A plane ticket to another state. D) A list of all other residents' phone numbers. Answer: B Rationale: Written notices must cite the specific Title 22 section or admission agreement clause that was violated. 129. If a resident chooses to leave, they must typically give the facility how many days' notice? A) 3 days B) 15 days C) 30 days D) No notice is required Answer: C Rationale: Most standard admission agreements require a 30-day notice from the resident for voluntary move-outs. 130. A "Relocation Evaluation" is required when: A) A resident wants to go on vacation. B) A resident's health condition becomes "prohibited" or "unmanageable." C) A resident gets a new roommate. D) The facility repaints the hallway. Answer: B Rationale: If an RCFE can no longer meet a resident's needs, an evaluation ensures they move to a safe, higher level of care. Section 22: Resident Rights & Activities 131. Residents have the right to receive mail: A) Only after it is opened by the Administrator. B) Unopened and without delay. C) Only on weekdays. D) Only from family members. Answer: B Rationale: Interference with resident mail is a violation of federal and state privacy rights. 132. Is a facility required to have a