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Pharmacology HESI Exam 2025/2026: 200+ Actual Questions & Verified Solutions (Graded A+)

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Ace your Pharmacology HESI with this comprehensive bank of over 200 actual exam questions and verified answers for the 2025/2026 academic year . This guide provides in-depth coverage of essential pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, including the first-pass effect of oral medications and the importance of monitoring peak and trough levels to ensure therapeutic dosage . Master critical medication classes, including Cardiovascular drugs like Digoxin, ACE inhibitors (Enalapril, Captopril), and Beta-blockers (Atenolol, Propranolol), with a focus on managing side effects like orthostatic hypotension and hyperkalemia . The guide also offers detailed practice on Respiratory medications such as Albuterol and Salmeterol for asthma management, and Pain Management protocols involving Opioids (Morphine, Oxycodone), PCA pumps, and NSAIDs like Ibuprofen and Celecoxib . Additionally, you will find verified solutions for Endocrine disorders (Insulin types, Glipizide, and Thyroid replacements), Infectious diseases (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, and Vancomycin), and Gastrointestinal treatments (Lactulose, Antacids, and PPIs like Nexium) . This resource is essential for understanding clinical priorities, drug-drug interactions, and life-threatening adverse reactions such as anaphylaxis and salicylate toxicity .

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Pharmacology Hesi Latest Updated Already Passed
UPDATE 2025/2026.



The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years. The
healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril to
manage the client's blood pressure. Which instruction should the nurse
provide the client regarding the new medication? - ANSWER-A. Take
the medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair. Correct

The client's new medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitor, which has the side effect oforthostatic hypotension. Instructing
the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying down position is
important to teach the client to avoid dizziness and potentially falling.

A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire about a
possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having
vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The nurse should
discuss which action with the client? - ANSWER-Discontinue the
antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.

Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.

Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect.
Correct

Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions.

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A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic
therapy. If suspected, the new onset of findings should be reported to the
healthcare provider for another prescribed treatment to treat the
superinfection.

The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a
client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse
administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent.
Which client response should the nurse expect? - ANSWER-
Tachycardia.

Increased blood pressure.

Rapid resolution of wheezing. Correct

Improved pulse oximetry values. Correct

Reduce fever airway inflammation.

Beta 2 receptor agonist agents should provide immediate return of
airflow and resolve wheezing and improve oxygenation.

A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg,
displaying a sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R
interval of 0.24. Which action should the nurse take? - ANSWER-Lower
the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign
changes.

Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client.
Correct

Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.

Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.

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Since the client's blood pressure is within normal limits, and the pulse is
above 50 beats/min with a first degree block, the medication can be
administered. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate and
lowers the blood pressure; this drug is generally held if the heart rate is
less than 50 beats/min or the client exhibits dizziness related to
hypotension.

The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an
angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and
heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and notes
that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action
should the nurse take first? – ANSWER-
Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct

Check the client's apical pulse.

Notify the healthcare provider.

Repeat the serum potassium level.

The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar because
the client is hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/l). Although
hypokalemia is usually associated with diuretic therapy in heart failure,
hyperkalemia is associated with several heart failure medications,
including ARBs. Because hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac
dysrhythmias, the nurse should check the apical pulse for rate and
rhythm, and blood pressure.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible

Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute
status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which
order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange
from first to last.) - ANSWER-Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.

Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

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Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.

Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.

Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so
albuterol, a beta2 adrenergic agonist and short acting bronchodilator,
should be administered by inhalation first to provide rapid and deep
topical penetration to relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and
increase oxygenation. In stepwise management of persistent asthma, a
long-action bronchodilator, such as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus), with a
12-hour duration of action should be given next. Prednisone, an oral
corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-inflammatory effects and should
be given after the client's respiratory distress begins to resolves.
Gentamicin, an antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be painful, and
may require repositioning the client, so should be last in the sequence.

An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch
(Transderm Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which
information should the nurse provide to the client? - ANSWER-Apply
the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Correct

Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.

Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.

Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.

Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion
sickness and has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be
instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure on the
cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours.
Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the
vomiting center, so the best application site of the patch is behind the

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