NR509 Bates Test Bank – Midterm questions
and CORRECT ANSWER with explanations
2026\2027 update
A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with
breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?
A) Musculoskeletal
B) Reproductive
C) Urinary
D) Endocrine -
CORRECT ANSWER A) Musculoskeletal
Chest pain may be due to a musculoskeletal condition, such as costochondritis or
intercostal muscle cramp. This would be worsened by motion of the chest wall.
Pleuritic chest pain is also a sharp chest pain which increases with a deep breath. This
type of pain can
occur with inflammation of the pleura from pneumonia or other conditions and
pulmonary embolus.
A patient comes to the emergency room for evaluation of shortness of breath. To
which anatomic region would you assign the symptom?
A) Reproductive
B) Urinary
C) Cardiac
D) Hematologic -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Cardiac
Cardiac disorders such as congestive heart failure are the most likely on this list to
result in shortness of breath. There are cases within the other categories which may
also result
in shortness of breath, such as anemia in the hematologic category, pregnancy in
the reproductive category, or sepsis with UTI in the urinary category.
1
,A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic
regions can be responsible for a cough?
A) Ophthalmologic
B) Auditory
C) Cardiac
D) Endocrine -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Cardiac
The cardiac system can cause a cough if the patient has congestive heart failure. This
results in fluid buildup in the lungs, which in turn can cause a cough that produces
pink, frothy sputum. A foreign body in the ear may also cause a cough by
stimulating Arnold's branch of the vagus nerve, but this is less likely to be seen
clinically than heart failure.
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is
new,
located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient
denies a
rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history
significant for
rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic
processes would be the most correct?
A) Infectious
B) Inflammatory
C) Hematologic
D) Traumatic -
CORRECT ANSWER B) Inflammatory
The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process, although all the
other etiologies should be considered. Lyme disease is an infection which commonly
causes
arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause bleeding in the
joints, and trauma can obviously cause joint pain.
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been
intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease
the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well and he still has discomfort. He
2
,recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great
discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper
respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infectious
B) Neoplastic
C) Degenerative
D) Traumatic -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Degenerative
The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck. The
patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit
pertinent negative and positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic,
or neoplastic disease.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week
history
of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive
cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Allergic
D) Vascular -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Allergic
This description is most consistent with allergic rhinitis.
A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache,
and
neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal
meningitis.
Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the
following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple
with full range of motion
3
, B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with
paraspinous
muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right
C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck
tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck
supple with
full range of motion -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with
blurred disc margins, neck tender to palpation, unable to perform range of
motion
Blurred disc margins are consistent with papilledema, and neck tenderness and lack
of range of motion are consistent with neck stiffness, which in this scenario is likely
to be caused
by meningeal inflammation. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are also helpful in
testing for meningeal irritation on exam.
A 37-year-old nurse comes for evaluation of colicky right upper quadrant abdominal
pain. The pain is associated with nausea and vomiting and occurs 1 to 2 hours after
eating greasy foods. Which one of the following physical examination descriptions
would be most consistent with the diagnosis of cholecystitis?
A) Abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended, without
hepatosplenomegaly or masses.
B) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right lower quadrant,
without rebound or guarding.
C) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant
with inspiration, to the point of stopping inspiration, and there is no rebound
or guarding.
D) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the mid-epigastric area,
without rebound or guarding. -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right
upper quadrant with inspiration, to the point of stopping inspiration, and there is
no rebound or guarding.
4
and CORRECT ANSWER with explanations
2026\2027 update
A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with
breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?
A) Musculoskeletal
B) Reproductive
C) Urinary
D) Endocrine -
CORRECT ANSWER A) Musculoskeletal
Chest pain may be due to a musculoskeletal condition, such as costochondritis or
intercostal muscle cramp. This would be worsened by motion of the chest wall.
Pleuritic chest pain is also a sharp chest pain which increases with a deep breath. This
type of pain can
occur with inflammation of the pleura from pneumonia or other conditions and
pulmonary embolus.
A patient comes to the emergency room for evaluation of shortness of breath. To
which anatomic region would you assign the symptom?
A) Reproductive
B) Urinary
C) Cardiac
D) Hematologic -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Cardiac
Cardiac disorders such as congestive heart failure are the most likely on this list to
result in shortness of breath. There are cases within the other categories which may
also result
in shortness of breath, such as anemia in the hematologic category, pregnancy in
the reproductive category, or sepsis with UTI in the urinary category.
1
,A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic
regions can be responsible for a cough?
A) Ophthalmologic
B) Auditory
C) Cardiac
D) Endocrine -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Cardiac
The cardiac system can cause a cough if the patient has congestive heart failure. This
results in fluid buildup in the lungs, which in turn can cause a cough that produces
pink, frothy sputum. A foreign body in the ear may also cause a cough by
stimulating Arnold's branch of the vagus nerve, but this is less likely to be seen
clinically than heart failure.
A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is
new,
located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient
denies a
rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history
significant for
rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic
processes would be the most correct?
A) Infectious
B) Inflammatory
C) Hematologic
D) Traumatic -
CORRECT ANSWER B) Inflammatory
The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process, although all the
other etiologies should be considered. Lyme disease is an infection which commonly
causes
arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause bleeding in the
joints, and trauma can obviously cause joint pain.
A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been
intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease
the pain, but this time they haven't worked as well and he still has discomfort. He
2
,recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great
discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper
respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infectious
B) Neoplastic
C) Degenerative
D) Traumatic -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Degenerative
The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck. The
patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit
pertinent negative and positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic,
or neoplastic disease.
A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week
history
of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive
cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Allergic
D) Vascular -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Allergic
This description is most consistent with allergic rhinitis.
A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache,
and
neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal
meningitis.
Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the
following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple
with full range of motion
3
, B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with
paraspinous
muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right
C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck
tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck
supple with
full range of motion -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with
blurred disc margins, neck tender to palpation, unable to perform range of
motion
Blurred disc margins are consistent with papilledema, and neck tenderness and lack
of range of motion are consistent with neck stiffness, which in this scenario is likely
to be caused
by meningeal inflammation. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are also helpful in
testing for meningeal irritation on exam.
A 37-year-old nurse comes for evaluation of colicky right upper quadrant abdominal
pain. The pain is associated with nausea and vomiting and occurs 1 to 2 hours after
eating greasy foods. Which one of the following physical examination descriptions
would be most consistent with the diagnosis of cholecystitis?
A) Abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended, without
hepatosplenomegaly or masses.
B) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right lower quadrant,
without rebound or guarding.
C) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right upper quadrant
with inspiration, to the point of stopping inspiration, and there is no rebound
or guarding.
D) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the mid-epigastric area,
without rebound or guarding. -
CORRECT ANSWER C) Abdomen is soft and tender to palpation in the right
upper quadrant with inspiration, to the point of stopping inspiration, and there is
no rebound or guarding.
4
