NAB CORE OF KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE EXAM
COMPLETE 200+ MULTIPLE-CHOICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWER💜💜S
AND RATIONALES 2026
1. The primary goal of person-centered care in a long-term care facility is to:
A. Increase staff efficiency
B. Standardize care procedures
C. Honor resident preferences and choices
D. Reduce staff turnover
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Honor resident preferences and choices
Rationale: Person-centered care focuses on autonomy, dignity, and individualized
preferences rather than rigid procedures. This approach respects the resident as a
unique individual with specific needs, desires, and life experiences .
2. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is used primarily to:
A. Track staff performance
B. Collect standardized resident assessment data
C. Report financial performance
D. Schedule activities
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Collect standardized resident assessment data
Rationale: The MDS ensures consistent, comprehensive resident assessments and
drives care planning and reimbursement under CMS. It is a federally mandated
process that provides a comprehensive assessment of each resident's functional
capabilities and health needs .
3. The care plan must be developed within how many days of admission?
,A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 30 days
Correct Answer💜💜: B. 14 days
Rationale: Federal regulations (F-Tag 279) require a comprehensive care plan
within 7 days of the MDS completion—effectively 14 days post-admission. The
care plan must be interdisciplinary and address the resident's medical, nursing,
and psychosocial needs .
4. Which of the following is a key indicator of quality of life in a nursing facility?
A. Profit margin
B. Staff-to-resident ratio
C. Resident satisfaction and autonomy
D. Average daily census
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Resident satisfaction and autonomy
Rationale: CMS defines quality of life by dignity, autonomy, and meaningful
engagement—not operational metrics. Quality of life encompasses the resident's
overall well-being, including emotional, social, and physical comfort .
5. Pressure ulcers are most effectively prevented by:
A. Routine wound dressing
B. Frequent repositioning and skin inspection
C. Applying topical creams daily
D. Increasing dietary fat
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Frequent repositioning and skin inspection
Rationale: Regular turning and assessment prevent pressure injury formation—
core part of quality nursing care. Repositioning relieves pressure on vulnerable
areas, while skin inspection allows for early identification of potential problems .
,6. A resident refuses medication. What is the best response?
A. Document the refusal and notify the nurse
B. Attempt to persuade repeatedly
C. Hide the medication in food
D. Ignore the refusal if it's minor
Correct Answer💜💜: A. Document the refusal and notify the nurse
Rationale: Residents have the right to refuse treatment; the nurse must assess
and document it appropriately. Coercing a resident or hiding medication violates
their rights and constitutes a form of abuse .
7. Which federal law established residents' rights in nursing facilities?
A. HIPAA
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987
C. Affordable Care Act
D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Correct Answer💜💜: B. OBRA of 1987
Rationale: OBRA established the Resident Bill of Rights and quality standards for
long-term care. This landmark legislation fundamentally changed nursing home
regulation by focusing on quality of life and quality of care .
8. Advance directives should be reviewed:
A. Once upon admission only
B. Annually
C. Whenever the resident's condition or wishes change
D. Every 90 days
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Whenever the resident's condition or wishes change
, Rationale: Resident rights include control over healthcare decisions; directives
must reflect current wishes. Advance directives are living documents that should
evolve as the resident's health status and preferences change .
9. Infection control in long-term care requires:
A. Antibiotics for all residents
B. Isolation of all new admissions
C. Hand hygiene and surveillance programs
D. Weekly staff temperature checks only
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Hand hygiene and surveillance programs
Rationale: Infection prevention is centered on hand hygiene, surveillance, and
staff education. These fundamental practices prevent the spread of infections
more effectively than reactive measures .
10. Which staff member is responsible for ensuring compliance with infection
control regulations?
A. Nursing Supervisor
B. Infection Preventionist (IP)
C. Medical Director
D. Unit Clerk
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Infection Preventionist (IP)
Rationale: CMS requires each facility to designate a trained Infection
Preventionist responsible for oversight and compliance. This role coordinates the
infection prevention and control program .
11. A resident with dementia frequently wanders into other residents' rooms.
The best initial intervention is:
A. Apply a wandering alarm
B. Use chemical restraints
COMPLETE 200+ MULTIPLE-CHOICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWER💜💜S
AND RATIONALES 2026
1. The primary goal of person-centered care in a long-term care facility is to:
A. Increase staff efficiency
B. Standardize care procedures
C. Honor resident preferences and choices
D. Reduce staff turnover
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Honor resident preferences and choices
Rationale: Person-centered care focuses on autonomy, dignity, and individualized
preferences rather than rigid procedures. This approach respects the resident as a
unique individual with specific needs, desires, and life experiences .
2. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) is used primarily to:
A. Track staff performance
B. Collect standardized resident assessment data
C. Report financial performance
D. Schedule activities
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Collect standardized resident assessment data
Rationale: The MDS ensures consistent, comprehensive resident assessments and
drives care planning and reimbursement under CMS. It is a federally mandated
process that provides a comprehensive assessment of each resident's functional
capabilities and health needs .
3. The care plan must be developed within how many days of admission?
,A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 days
D. 30 days
Correct Answer💜💜: B. 14 days
Rationale: Federal regulations (F-Tag 279) require a comprehensive care plan
within 7 days of the MDS completion—effectively 14 days post-admission. The
care plan must be interdisciplinary and address the resident's medical, nursing,
and psychosocial needs .
4. Which of the following is a key indicator of quality of life in a nursing facility?
A. Profit margin
B. Staff-to-resident ratio
C. Resident satisfaction and autonomy
D. Average daily census
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Resident satisfaction and autonomy
Rationale: CMS defines quality of life by dignity, autonomy, and meaningful
engagement—not operational metrics. Quality of life encompasses the resident's
overall well-being, including emotional, social, and physical comfort .
5. Pressure ulcers are most effectively prevented by:
A. Routine wound dressing
B. Frequent repositioning and skin inspection
C. Applying topical creams daily
D. Increasing dietary fat
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Frequent repositioning and skin inspection
Rationale: Regular turning and assessment prevent pressure injury formation—
core part of quality nursing care. Repositioning relieves pressure on vulnerable
areas, while skin inspection allows for early identification of potential problems .
,6. A resident refuses medication. What is the best response?
A. Document the refusal and notify the nurse
B. Attempt to persuade repeatedly
C. Hide the medication in food
D. Ignore the refusal if it's minor
Correct Answer💜💜: A. Document the refusal and notify the nurse
Rationale: Residents have the right to refuse treatment; the nurse must assess
and document it appropriately. Coercing a resident or hiding medication violates
their rights and constitutes a form of abuse .
7. Which federal law established residents' rights in nursing facilities?
A. HIPAA
B. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987
C. Affordable Care Act
D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
Correct Answer💜💜: B. OBRA of 1987
Rationale: OBRA established the Resident Bill of Rights and quality standards for
long-term care. This landmark legislation fundamentally changed nursing home
regulation by focusing on quality of life and quality of care .
8. Advance directives should be reviewed:
A. Once upon admission only
B. Annually
C. Whenever the resident's condition or wishes change
D. Every 90 days
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Whenever the resident's condition or wishes change
, Rationale: Resident rights include control over healthcare decisions; directives
must reflect current wishes. Advance directives are living documents that should
evolve as the resident's health status and preferences change .
9. Infection control in long-term care requires:
A. Antibiotics for all residents
B. Isolation of all new admissions
C. Hand hygiene and surveillance programs
D. Weekly staff temperature checks only
Correct Answer💜💜: C. Hand hygiene and surveillance programs
Rationale: Infection prevention is centered on hand hygiene, surveillance, and
staff education. These fundamental practices prevent the spread of infections
more effectively than reactive measures .
10. Which staff member is responsible for ensuring compliance with infection
control regulations?
A. Nursing Supervisor
B. Infection Preventionist (IP)
C. Medical Director
D. Unit Clerk
Correct Answer💜💜: B. Infection Preventionist (IP)
Rationale: CMS requires each facility to designate a trained Infection
Preventionist responsible for oversight and compliance. This role coordinates the
infection prevention and control program .
11. A resident with dementia frequently wanders into other residents' rooms.
The best initial intervention is:
A. Apply a wandering alarm
B. Use chemical restraints
