WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2026| ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2026|
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM
TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
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TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
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A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
D) 3-8
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The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
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Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
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A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
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emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
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D) Delusions
C) Obsessions
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Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
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emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
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During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,
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Mthe FNP might observe what type of behavior?
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A) An inflated sense of self
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B) Constant relation to future events M M M M



C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview M M M M M M M M




C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
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A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
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B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
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,C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
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D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
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C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
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The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
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disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
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The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
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mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP
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suspects that this child has:
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A) Acute otitis media M M




B) Acute otitis externa M M



C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media M M




A) Acute otitis media M M



The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
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recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
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The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized
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by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
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accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
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A) Retropharyngeal abscess M




B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis M



D) Peritonsillar abscess M




D) Peritonsillar abscess
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Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw
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muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
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A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
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tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a
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complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis
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of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
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A) Thyroid cancer M



B) Graves' disease M




C) Pituitary adenoma M



D) Postpartum thyroiditis M




B) Graves' disease M




Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most
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common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
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During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
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patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
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A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL M M

,B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
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C) BP < 130/85 mm HgM M M M



D) FBS < 110 mg/dL M M M




A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL M M



Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates triglycerides.
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When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the patient that
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the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose level is:
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A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate
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Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
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Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
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A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
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B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for other
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health problems.
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C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
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D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease.
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A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
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Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
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resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
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Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
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A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
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B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found M M M M M



C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
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D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance
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A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
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Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
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Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
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A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use M M



C) Unopposed estrogen use M M



D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years M M M M M




B) Oral contraceptive use M M



Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce the incidence of endometrial cancer.
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The FNP understands the the most accurate explanation for the diagnosis of mixed precocious
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puberty is:
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, A) When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
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B) When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs.
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C) When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects.
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D) When early puberty has signs of physical and hormonal abnormalities.
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A) When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
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Mixed precocious puberty cases the child to develop some secondary characteristics of the
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opposite sex, such as the feminization of a boy.
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In the majority of children experiencing delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
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A) Disruption of the hypothalamus. M M M



B) Disruption of the pituitary. M M M



C) Deficiencies in estrogen or testosterone. M M M M



D) Physiologic delays in maturation. M M M




D) Physiologic delays in maturation.
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In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is physiologic in nature.
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Priapism has been associated with the abuse of which substance?
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A) Marijuana
B) Alcohol
C) Cocaine
D) Heroin
C) Cocaine
Priapism is an uncommon condition of prolonged penile erection. In 60% of cases the cause is
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idiopathic. The remaining 40% are associated with spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease,
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leukemia, pelvic tumors, or infections. It has also been associated with cocaine use.
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What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
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A) Gradual decrease in estrogen levels. M M M M



B) Sudden increase of LH. M M M



C) Sharp rise in progesterone levels.
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D) Gradual increase in estrogen levels. M M M M




B) Sudden increase of LH. M M M



Ovulation generally occurs 1-2 hours before the final progesterone surge, or about 12-36 hours
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after the onset of the FSH and LH surge.
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What type of ovarian cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant
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follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
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A) Follicular
B) Corpus luteum M



C) Corpus albicans M



D) Benign ovarian M