WGU D115 OA Readiness Exam – Complete Preparation with 500 Verified Questions and Answers (2025 Curriculum) MOST TESTED QUESTIONS COVERED

WGU D115 OA Readiness Exam – Complete Preparation with 500
Verified Questions and Answers (2025 Curriculum) MOST TESTED
QUESTIONS COVERED
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
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A) maternal age M




B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
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C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein M M




D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER****A) maternal age
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The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age of 35
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The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
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weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
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A) Assess for the possibility of twins
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B) Deterime the biliruben level M M M




C) Perform genetic studies M M




D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER****C) Perform genetic studies
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This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
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In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?
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A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
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B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
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C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
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D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWER****A) Each cell has only one X
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chromsome
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45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of
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the X chromosome in each cell.
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,The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly,
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hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the
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following genetic conditions?
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A) Down Syndrome M




B) Cri du chat
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C) Charge syndrome M




D) Duncan disease - ANSWER****B) Cri du chat
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The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry,
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mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size
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(microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone
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(hypotonia) in infancy.
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When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
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A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
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B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
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C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.
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D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - ANSWER****A) Adaptive immunity is a
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cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
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There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response,
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which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by
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activated B cells and antibodies.
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A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
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manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
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A) Coma

B) Persistent vegetative state M M




C) Minimally conscious M




D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWER****C) Minimally conscious
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,When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious
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state
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Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI.
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Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
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A) 13-15

B) 12-13

C) 9-12

D) 3-8 - ANSWER****D) 3-8
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The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
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Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
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A) Hallucinations

B) Compulsions

C) Obsessions

Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
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emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
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D) Delusions - ANSWER****C) Obsessions M M M




Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
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emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
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During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,
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the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
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A) An inflated sense of self
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B) Constant relation to future events M M M M




C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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, D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWER****C) Inability
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to concentrate and irritability when questioned
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Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
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The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
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A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
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B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
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C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
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D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
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ANSWER****C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
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The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
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suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
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The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and mufled hearing.
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The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection.
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The FNP suspects that this child has:
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A) Acute otitis media
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B) Acute otitis externa
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C) Cholesteatoma

D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER****A) Acute otitis media
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The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, mufled hearing, popping sensation, and a
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recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
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The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized
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by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
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accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
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A) Retropharyngeal abscess M




B) Epiglotitis