CEA PREP COMPLETE AND ACTUAL PRACTICE
TEST EXAM WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS AND
WELL EXPLAINED RATIONALES
A 59-year-old male presents with symptoms of
abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss which he
has not been trying to lose weight. What would be a
malignancy associated with these symptoms? -
answer-Pancreatic cancer
Raionale: Pancreatic cancer, the most typically
presentation includes abdominal pain, jaundice, and
weight loss. Although weight loss and abdominal
pain may be present with adenocarcinoma it is
unlikely to present with jaundice, and you're
unlikely to have abdominal pain or jaundice with
any esophageal malignancy.
A 39-year-old female is being seen by your service
for diarrhea. Patient reports 3-4 loose stools a day.
She also reports mild cramping. Which labs would
be helpful in further workup of a diagnosis? -
answer-ESR, fecal occult, Stool culture
,Rationale: ESR, Fecal occult, and stool culture would
be the biggest benefit to determine the potential
cause of her symptoms.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a
low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a
left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the
left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view
shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to
the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette
is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - answer-Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male
has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? - answer-Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
lifestyle modifications.
, Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm
ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging
is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? - answer-CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not
timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to
catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to
provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to
accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and
requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause
beta 1 stimulation? - answer-phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
TEST EXAM WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS AND
WELL EXPLAINED RATIONALES
A 59-year-old male presents with symptoms of
abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss which he
has not been trying to lose weight. What would be a
malignancy associated with these symptoms? -
answer-Pancreatic cancer
Raionale: Pancreatic cancer, the most typically
presentation includes abdominal pain, jaundice, and
weight loss. Although weight loss and abdominal
pain may be present with adenocarcinoma it is
unlikely to present with jaundice, and you're
unlikely to have abdominal pain or jaundice with
any esophageal malignancy.
A 39-year-old female is being seen by your service
for diarrhea. Patient reports 3-4 loose stools a day.
She also reports mild cramping. Which labs would
be helpful in further workup of a diagnosis? -
answer-ESR, fecal occult, Stool culture
,Rationale: ESR, Fecal occult, and stool culture would
be the biggest benefit to determine the potential
cause of her symptoms.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a
low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a
left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the
left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view
shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to
the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - answer-Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this
question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette
is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
,The inability to fully relax the myocardium during
relaxation is a trademark of which of the following
diagnoses? - answer-Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male
has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been
restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? - answer-Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a
dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management
therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and
lifestyle modifications.
, Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm
ascending aortic aneurysm. Which medical imaging
is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? - answer-CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
standard of care for measuring vascular luminal
dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not
timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to
catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to
provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to
accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and
requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause
beta 1 stimulation? - answer-phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
