PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 9 – General Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Verified Questions & Correct Answers | Grade A | Portage Learning

PSYC101 / PSYC 101 Module 9 – General Psychology (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Verified Questions & Correct Answers | Grade A | Portage Learning 2026 / 2027 Academic Year Q: When we use the term "remembering" in day-to-day life, we are making reference to the memory process of: a. retrieval. b. storage. c. rehearsal. d. encoding a. retrieval. Q: If new experiences disrupt recall of old experiences, this is referred to as: retroactive interference retrieval failure cue overload proactive interference retroactive interference Q: Estelle has fond memories for the night her husband proposed to her. This memory probably involves not only her hippocampus but also her: a. cerebellum b. amygdala c. hypothalamus d. thalamus b. amygdala Q: When you tell your roommate about what happened on the way to class, that information is retrieved from _____ memory. a. episodic b. sensory c. working d. semantic a. episodic Q: Conrad took a unit quiz for his psychology class, but he only took it once, although he could take it multiple times. As a result he didn't see all the questions that were available in the quiz-bank. When he eventually studied for that unit exam, he only studied the information that was on the quiz that he had taken earlier. As a result he missed a number of questions. This phenomena is called: testing effect cue overload retrieval inhibition implicit knowledge retrieval inhibition Q: Vera and Xavier are both eyewitnesses to a robbery at a convenience store. The police ask them to come to the station to get their versions of the event. According to research, what would be most likely to decrease the accuracy of Vera and Xavier's recounting of the crime? a. Vera and Xavier are offered a bottle of water or coffee while they are being questioned. b. Vera and Xavier are questioned by the detectives separately. c. Vera and Xavier are left in the witness room alone together for 20 minutes and they discuss what they saw. d. The police ask Vera and Xavier to describe the "facial features" of the person who committed the crime. c. Vera and Xavier are left in the witness room alone together for 20 minutes and they discuss what they saw. Q: Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of college. a. autobiographical b. semantic c. flashbulb d. implicit a. autobiographical Q: Some people have amazing and elaborate memory processes that allow them to remember a large amount of information in a short amount of time. Often, these individuals are said to use ______, or elaborate scenes with discrete places, to help them encode and recall information at a rapid rate. the specificity principle peg words retroactive cues memory palaces memory palaces Q: Ilana is trying to remember a set of dates for her history class. While she practices the dates, she makes up rhymes and stories to go with them. This method of improving her memory by adding to the information she is trying to remember while practicing it is called a. elaborative rehearsal b. constructive processing c. associational networking d. rote repetition a. elaborative rehearsal Q: "What's your ID number?" the associate asks over the phone. "Seven, six, four . . ." you begin. After a brief pause, you continue, "seventy-two . . . sixteen thirty-eight." To ease the burden on the associate's short-term memory, you are giving the number in ______ rather than as individual digits. a. clusters b. clumps c. nuggets d. chunks d. chunks Q: In a study, researchers asked one group of participants to watch a video about two friends in an unpleasant argument. They asked another group of participants to watch the same video, but told participants that it was a video of two friends enjoying a lively discussion. Afterwards, the researchers notice that participants who were told the discussion was an argument were more likely to falsely report that the people in the video were yelling, frowning, and getting angry. This is an example of: a. misinformation effect b. cue overload c. source amnesia d. misattribution effect a. misinformation effect Q: Which of the following students should retrieve information more successfully on classroom exams based on studies of recoding strategies? Irene, who attempts to relate her notes to information she already knows. Grant, who repeats his notes to himself, trying to memorize them. Grant and Irene should retrieve information equally well on exams. Susan, who highlights important information in her notes and the text. Irene, who attempts to relate her notes to information she already knows. Q: Levi met a cute girl walking from class. The girl gave him her number and he is trying to remember the digits until he can write it down. Levi is using what type of memory to remember the girl's phone number? collective semantic episodic working memory working memory Q: Your drive to class each day is fairly standard - you start your car, take the same route, and park in the same spot (or close to the same spot). One day, while sitting at a red light, you witness a car chase - cops and even a helicopter. Years later, you can recall details from that drive. Which memory concept is associated with why you will remember that particular drive to class? distinctiveness misinformation effect retroactive interference constructive processing distinctiveness Q: Research on flashbulb memories indicates that a. the details of these memories are very accurate. b. the details of these memories are not very accurate. c. the details of these memories are difficult to retrieve. d. flashbulb memories are difficult to study scientifically. b. the details of these memories are not very accurate. Q: The testing effect refers to: repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information. the emotional letdown people often experience after taking a test. losing the majority of the information you learned for the test immediately after the test. writing a test in the same state that you studied the material should enhance retention. repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information. Q: If your episodic long-term memory were disabled, you would be unable to a. remember details of your own personal life. b. maintain information in short-term memory via rehearsal. c. speak, but you could still comprehend language through listening. d. recall simple facts such as names of presidents. a. remember details of your own personal life. Q: When trying to remember a list of words, a person may choose a word to which they "hang" their memories on. This type of mnemonic device is called the _____ technique. mnemonic word peg word retrieval language word aid peg word Q: The encoding specificity principle is a hypothesis that states: a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will NOT be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information retrieved from the cue is distinct or does not match information in memory. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue is distinct or does not match information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of college. a. autobiographical b. flashbulb c. implicit d. semantic a. autobiographical Thinking about the meaning of the information to be reviewed and trying to form associations with information already in memory is called _____. a. echoic memory b. elaborative rehearsal c. constructive processing d. rote repetition b. elaborative rehearsal What do clinical psychologists study? Mental disorders and the treatment of mental disorders. How do clinical psychologists differ from psychiatrists? Psychiatrists have medical training and are more likely to operate from that theoretical perspective. Clinical psychologists would also focus on a variety of psychological and social causes and treatments other than just biological. What is the basic problem in depressive disorders? Depressed mood. How long must someone experience a depressed mood before being diagnosed with with major depressive disorder? Two weeks. What are the two "poles" of bipolar disorder? Mania and Depression What is panic disorder? Recurrent and unexpected panic attacks. What is the gender difference in depression rates? Using the bio-psycho-social model, describe some of the reasons for the gender difference in depression rates. Gender difference: women are twice as likely to be diagnosed with depression as men. Reasons: Bio: hormonal differences; psychological: rumination; social: differences in levels of stress What is the difference between mania and hypomania? Mania will be indicated by high energy, racing thoughts, and potentially psychosis. Hypomania is less extreme and does not have false sensations / ideas. Define phobia. Persistent, irrational fear How can clinicians distinguish between the normal fears people have about performance situations and social anxiety? The biggest marker of any disorders is the level to which it interferes with life functioning. Social anxiety that holds individuals back from performing their jobs or having meaningful relationships may be problematic and may require treatment to overcome. Also, individuals who are very isolated and have co-occurring depression may be at risk for additional, severe problems such as suicide attempts. A final difference is that while many people are afraid of public speaking, people with social anxiety experience high distress and physical symptoms in response to everyday life events such as paying for groceries, ordering food at a restaurant, greeting others, and talking to anyone in authority. What is the difference between obsessions and compulsions? Obsessions are repetitive unwanted thoughts, whereas compulsion are repetitive unwanted behaviors that someone does in response to the thoughts. What do the "related disorders" in the Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Related Disorders category have in common? Essentially, they all involve compulsive behaviors. Many of them also include obsessive thoughts that are tied to the compulsive behaviors. Describe dissociative identity disorder. In DID, various personalities take turns holding the person's consciousness, or awareness. Some personalities may be aware of one another, but others may not be. What is one explanation of what DID exactly is? Some possibilities: a fractured ego that is trying too hard to keep unwanted thoughts from becoming conscious, the individual is acting out learned behaviors, or the individual is a fraud. What is a trauma? A frightening event that you experience or witness. What are the symptoms of PTSD? PTSD symptoms fall under four clusters: Re-experiencing the traumatic event, avoidance of reminders of the event, negatively changed mood and cognitions as a result of the event, and hyperarousal symptoms. What are some factors that may make someone more likely to develop PTSD? Risk factors include prior childhood trauma, family history of PTSD, personal history of abuse, history of depression and anxiety, lack of support What is schizophrena? What are typical categories of symptoms? Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder involving distortions in thoughts, perceptions, or emotions. Positive symptoms are additional sensory experiences (like delusions or hallucinations). Negative symptoms are deficits (like reduced emotion or pleasure). Disorganized symptoms are bizarre behaviors or speech patterns (like clang associations). How does the diathesis-stress model help us understand schizophrenia? There is a genetic predisposition or risk for developing schizophrenia, but it will only develop if sufficient environmental stressors are in place. Sometimes people confuse the diagnoses of schizophrenia and dissociative identity disorder. What would you highlight as key differences? Dissociative identity disorder is a break in personality, schizophrenia is a break from typical sensory and processing experiences. What is narcissistic personality disorder? An individual is obsessed with herself and has an exaggerated sense of her own importance. What are some of the key symptoms of autism spectrum disorder? Social skill deficits such as failing to make eye contact or interact with others; language delays or regression; repetitive behaviors (some of which might involve self-harming), sensitivities to light and noise. List some key symptoms of ADHD. Difficulty paying attention, difficulty keeping still, talkativeness, problems following through on tasks. What domains are considered when assessing the adaptive functioning of someone with intellectual disability? Social, language, conceptual, independence, school/work functioning. What are the differences between overeating and binge-eating disorder? Some specific emotional and behavioral components, such as feeling out-of-control, feeling depressed/guilt/anxious. Still, there are experts and others who would argue that this is an example of a disorder in which it is difficult to draw a sharp line between normal and abnormal behavior. Compare and contrast anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. The biggest contrast between the two disorders is that Anorexia involves extreme caloric restriction while Bulimia involves uncontrollable eating (binging). Purging is actually not a distinguishing factor between the two disorders, since some individuals with Anorexia purge as well as severely limit food intake. What therapies are used to treat affective disorders? Psychotherapy such as Cognitive therapy or Cognitive Behavioral therapy. Drug therapy such as antidepressants. Compare and contrast cognitive-behavioral therapy with humanistic therapy. Cognitive-behavioral therapy targets one's thoughts and feelings but also targets the behaviors that promote mental disorders. Humanistic therapy is where individuals can choose to get well and that they simply need to be encouraged by therapists to reach their potential. How do antidepressants treat depression? They treat the chemical imbalance that might be present in some depressed individuals by targeting neurotransmitters. Some depressed individuals may not produce enough of a neurotransmitter or the Nervous System may not use the neurotransmitters properly; thus, the antidepressant seeks to address this problem. What therapies are used to treat anxiety disorders? Drug therapy such as antidepressants and anti-anxiety drugs. Psychotherapy such as Behavioral therapy. Estelle has fond memories for the night her husband proposed to her. This memory probably involves not only her hippocampus but also her: a. hypothalamus b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. thalamus b. amygdala Tyler witnessed an automobile accident and heard one of the bystanders casually mention that the driver was probably intoxicated. Even though the driver had not been drinking and had never crossed the center line, Tyler tells the police officer who is investigating the accident that the car had been "weaving all over the road." Tyler's faulty recall illustrates: a. cue overload b. proactive interference c. the misinformation effect d. schemas c. the misinformation effect When you tell your roommate about what happened on the way to class, that information is retrieved from _____ memory. a. semantic b. working c. episodic d. sensory c. episodic When trying to remember a list of words, a person may choose a word to which they "hang" their memories on. This type of mnemonic device is called the _____ technique. mnemonic word retrieval language peg word word aid peg word The encoding specificity principle is a hypothesis that states: a retrieval cue will NOT be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue is distinct or doe not match information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information retrieved from the cue is distinct or does not match information in memory. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. Conrad took a unit quiz for his psychology class, but he only took it once, although he could take it multiple times. As a result he didn't see all the questions that were available in the quiz-bank. When he eventually studied for that unit exam, he only studied the information that was on the quiz that he had taken earlier. As a result he missed a number of questions. This phenomena is called: cue overload implicit knowledge retrieval inhibition testing effect retrieval inhibition Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of college. a. semantic b. autobiographical c. implicit d. flashbulb b. autobiographical Which principle describes when an unusual event, typically in the context of similar events, will be recalled and recognized better than uniform events? misinformation effect recoding cue overload distinctiveness distinctiveness Encoding is the memory process primarily concerned with a. taking information out of storage b. getting information into memory c. registering information with our senses d. retaining information over time b. getting information into memory Ilana is trying to remember a set of dates for her history class. While she practices the dates, she makes up rhymes and stories to go with them. This method of improving her memory by adding to the information she is trying to remember while practicing it is called a. constructive processing b. rote repetition c. associational networking d. elaborative rehearsal d. elaborative rehearsal Research on flashbulb memories indicates that a. the details of these memories are very accurate. b. the details of these memories are not very accurate. c. the details of these memories are difficult to retrieve. d. flashbulb memories are difficult to study scientifically. the details of these memories are not very accurate Some people have amazing and elaborate memory processes that allow them to remember a large amount of information in a short amount of time. Often, these individuals are said to use ______, or elaborate scenes with discrete places, to help them encode and recall information at a rapid rate. retroactive cues the specificity principle peg words memory palaces memory palaces Jules was recently in a motorcycle accident that damaged portions of her limbic system, particularly the hippocampus. You would not be surprised if Jules experienced a(n) a. heightened ability to process spatial memories b. improved memory for episodic information c. impaired memory for iconic information d. inability to consolidate new memories d. inability to consolidate new memories The testing effect refers to: repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information. writing a test in the same state that you studied the material should enhance retention. losing the majority of the information you learned for the test immediately after the test. the emotional letdown people often experience after taking a test. repeated self-testing as a way to enhance retention of information. Levi met a cute girl walking from class. The girl gave him her number and he is trying to remember the digits until he can write it down. Levi is using what type of memory to remember the girl's phone number? semantic collective working memory episodic working memory If your episodic long-term memory were disabled, you would be unable to a. speak, but you could still comprehend language through listening. b. recall simple facts such as names of presidents. c. remember details of your own personal life. d. maintain information in short-term memory via rehearsal. c. remember details of your own personal life. The encoding specificity principle is a hypothesis that states: a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information retrieved from the cue is distinct or does not match information in memory. a retrieval cue will NOT be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue is distinct or doe not match information in the memory trace. a retrieval cue will be effective to the extent that information encoded from the cue overlaps or matches information in the memory trace. What's your ID number?" the associate asks over the phone. "Seven, six, four . . ." you begin. After a brief pause, you continue, "seventy-two . . . sixteen thirty-eight." To ease the burden on the associate's short-term memory, you are giving the number in ______ rather than as individual digits. a. clusters b. nuggets c. clumps d. chunks chunks Your drive to class each day is fairly standard - you start your car, take the same route, and park in the same spot (or close to the same spot). One day, while sitting at a red light, you witness a car chase - cops and even a helicopter. Years later, you can recall details from that drive. Which memory concept is associated with why you will remember that particular drive to class? constructive processing misinformation effect retroactive interference distinctiveness distinctiveness Your _____ memory helps you recall what happened to you during your first day of college. a. autobiographical b. semantic c. implicit d. flashbulb a. autobiographical Thinking about the meaning of the information to be reviewed and trying to form associations with information already in memory is called _____. a. echoic memory b. constructive processing c. elaborative rehearsal d. rote repetition c. elaboratie rehearsal What does the science of personality explore? A. Unique patterns of being, perceiving, and sensing B. Distinctive patterns of morals, desires, and behaviors C. Global patterns of identification, socialization, and adaptation D. Characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving D. Characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving Which of these psychologists is/are associated with the psychodynamic theory of personality? A. Freud B. Maslow and Rogers C. Cattell and Allport D. Bandura A. Freud Humanists advocate studying exceptional people to see _____. A. why they are abnormal B. which memories they can recall under hypnosis C. why they succeeded D. how they communicate with others C. why they succeeded A trait is _____. A. an unconscious desire B. a stable personality characteristic C. the personality characteristic that people like about you D. an aspect of your personality that you suppress B. a stable personality characteristic Which of the following describes a behaviorist approach to the study of psychology? A. Behaviorists emphasized the significance of abnormal behaviors. B. Behaviorists emphasized learning as an important influence on personality. C. Behaviorists relied heavily on animal research for their findings. D. Behaviorists advocated studying exceptional people to see why they succeeded. B. Behaviorists emphasized learning as an important influence on personality. In cognitive-social learning theories of personality, the cognitive expectancy related to the source of individual outcomes is known as ________. A. reciprocal determinism B. response tendencies C. locus of control D. defense mechanisms C. locus of control The science of personality _____. A. explores the extent to which personality is truly unique or overlaps with others B. proves that Freud's perspectives were all correct C. provides data to judge right and wrong ways to be D. allows you to predict others' behavior in different situations A. explores the extent to which personality is truly unique or overlaps with others In Freud's model of the structure of personality, which of the following would be an example of the superego? A. The primitive drives that serve as a source of energy for the personality B. The part of our personality that operates according to the pleasure principle C. The part of our personality that functions as a conscience D. The component of the personality that is readily seen by others, acting as the person's "self" C. The part of our personality that functions as a conscience Which of the following psychologists was a humanist, interested particularly in human motivation? A. Allport B. Bandura C. Maslow D. Freud C. Maslow Trait theorists use _____ to support their theories. A. MRIs B. the results of talk therapy C. statistical methods of correlation and factor analysis D. motivation C. statistical methods of correlation and factor analysis What theory of personality says that operant conditioning leads, over time, to the development of "response tendencies" in individuals? A. Trait theory B. Psychodynamic theory C. Behaviorism D. Social-cognitive learning theory C. Behaviorism What theory of personality considers cognition and learning, especially from the social environment, to be important sources of individual differences in personality? A. Trait theory B. Behaviorism C. Social-cognitive learning theory D. Psychodynamic theory C. Social-cognitive learning theory A child's ________, which is linked to later personality, is defined as a pattern of mood, activity, or emotional responsiveness. A. self-esteem B. self-concept C. temperament D. character C. temperament Most efforts to study how genetics affects personality use ____. A. factor analysis B. the study of extended families C. qualitative methods D. the twin study method D. the twin study method The critical finding of the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart was that identical twins raised apart and together were ____. A. generally similar to each other on physical characteristics but not on social characteristics B. very similar to one another on nonreligious social attitudes but quite far apart on occupational interests C. very different from each other, depending on the families within which they were raised D. very similar to one another whether the overall positive correlation for a particular characteristic was strong or weak D. very similar to one another whether the overall positive correlation for a particular characteristic was strong or weak Researchers have identified structural correlates in the brains of adults for four of the Big Five personality traits. Which Big Five personality trait has not yet been correlated with a structure of the brain? A. Conscientiousness B. Openness C. Neuroticism D. Agreeableness B. Openness People who differ in neuroticism show different volumes of areas of the prefrontal cortex, anterior cingulate cortex, and hippocampus, areas that have been implicated in ____. A. sensitivity to threat and stress B. voluntary control of behavior C. planning and achieving goals D. executive functions A. sensitivity to threat and stress The relationship between brain structure and the Big Five personality traits is ______, meaning we do not know if they are responsible for personality, the result of personality, or the result of other unknown variables. A. correlational B. reasonable C. logical D. causal A. correlational What two dimensions of temperament appear to be particularly important for adult personality? A. Reactivity and extroversion B. Conscientiousness and self-regulation C. Reactivity and self-regulation D. Introversion and neuroticism C. Reactivity and self-regulation A sensitive person who reacts with anxiety to loud noises or unexpected experiences would be described as having a high level of reactivity. Toward which end of the continuum of the Big Five traits would this person likely fall? A. Introversion and neuroticism B. Leadership and emotional stability C. Strength and disagreeability D. Extroversion and openness A. Introversion and neuroticism Genetics accounts for ______ of the variability seen in the population's personality. A. none B. about two-thirds C. all D. about half D. about half Which of the following statements is true about the heritability ratio of personality traits in humans? A. Approximately 50% of a person's personality traits are produced by genes. B. The heritability ratio does not tell us how an individual's personality actually develops. C. The heritability ratio incorporates the effects of shared and nonshared environments on the production of particular outcomes. D. Approximately 50% of the personality traits within a family are produced by genes. B. The heritability ratio does not tell us how an individual's personality actually develops. Twin studies like the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart are commonly used to explore __________. A. behavioral techniques B. operant conditioning C. how genetics affects personality D. Freudian theory C. how genetics affects personality The text notes that Professor Jennifer Mather tested 44 octopuses systematically for their responses to stimuli such as being touched with a brush. What did she find? A. Most were identified as being agreeable and conscientious. B. The octopuses could be categorized along the continuum of all five of the Big Five traits. C. Some responded "cheerfully," others with "anger," some went to sleep, and the last group appeared to have a nervous breakdown. D. The octopuses seemed to have unique and stable responses, similar to having a "personality." D. The octopuses seemed to have unique and stable responses, similar to having a "personality." The ________ dimension of temperament predicts a person's response to novel or challenging stimuli. A. self-regulation B. conscientiousness C. introversion D. reactivity D. reactivity What does it mean that a particular personality trait, such as shyness or extroversion, has a heritability factor of .50? A. A child of two parents with that personality trait has a 100% chance of having the trait. B. Across the human population, the variations in that personality trait are influenced about equally by genetics and environmental factors. C. If a person has that personality trait, it's half the result of genes and half the result of environmental influences. D. Half the children of a person with that personality trait will also have the trait. B. Across the human population, the variations in that personality trait are influenced about equally by genetics and environmental factors. What does the early appearance of temperament in a person's life suggest? A. Personality is fixed at birth B. A definite genetic origin for personality C. A possible genetic origin for personality D. A lack of environmental influence on personality C. A possible genetic origin for personality What did the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart show about the similarity of identical twins? A. They were less similar if they were raised with additional siblings. B. They were different if they had been raised apart. C. They were similar only if they had been raised together. D. They were similar whether or not they were raised together. D. They were similar whether or not they were raised together. People with different levels of ________ have different volumes in areas of the prefrontal cortex that are involved with planning and the voluntary control of behavior. A. conscientiousness B. extroversion C. neuroticism D. openness A. conscientiousness Why do some evolutionary psychologists believe characteristics such as the Big Five show up in a variety of cultures? A. Because they are solely the result of brain structure, and all brains share the same structure. B. Because humans evolved from primates, and primates exhibit the same characteristics. C. Because modern technology means cultures have much more exposure to one another than in the past. D. Because these characteristics affect survival in our social species. D. Because these characteristics affect survival in our social species. Assessing other people's personalities by listening to them and watching their behavior is called __________. A. introspection B. observation C. inventory D. projection B. observation What is one limitation of using an interview to conduct a personality assessment? A. It's too specific. B. The person being interviewed can easily hide some aspects of his or her personality. C. It lacks consistency over time. D. It's too objective. B. The person being interviewed can easily hide some aspects of his or her personality. To avoid the pitfalls of observation and interview, many psychologists turn to ____. A. individualized tests of personality B. participant observation C. long-term qualitative studies D. standardized tests of personality D. standardized tests of personality Which of the following is an advantage of personality inventories? A. They are very nuanced and subjective. B. Large numbers of people can be assessed quickly and inexpensively. C. Testing is more expensive but valid and reliable. D. They are strong in reliability though weak in validity. B. Large numbers of people can be assessed quickly and inexpensively. A projective personality test provides an ambiguous stimulus onto which the test taker "projects" his or her personality. This is based on ____. A. the Big Five theory B. social-cognitive learning theory C. the humanistic theory of personality D. Freudian theory D. Freudian theory Personality tests are widely used by therapists, potential employers, judges, and attorneys. These applications of personality assessment ____. A. are fundamental to a functioning society B. have been found to be civil rights violations C. are well received by all concerned D. raise important ethical concerns D. raise important ethical concerns Observation remains one of the most reliable means of making judgments about other people, but it ____. A. requires subjectivity from the participant B. lacks consistency over time C. can be time consuming and biased D. is rarely valid C. can be time consuming and biased What are the two basic requirements of a good test? A. Specificity and sensitivity B. Reliability and sensitivity C. Specificity and generalizability D. Validity and reliability D. Validity and reliability What is one potential limitation of personality inventories that are based on self-reporting? A. Results based on self-reporting are rarely valid. B. Self-reporting can be very time-consuming. C. The responses might be influenced by the test-taker's need to appear socially appropriate. D. Self-reported responses may be overly objective. C. The responses might be influenced by the test-taker's need to appear socially appropriate. In Freudian theory, projection is ____. A. a defense mechanism B. part of the Oedipus complex C. a psychosexual stage of development D. a function of the superego A. a defense mechanism Which of the following is a projective personality test? A. Rorschach Inkblot Test B. NEO-PI-R C. Likert scale D. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory A. Rorschach Inkblot Test Which of the following is an example of an ethical concern related to a standardized personality inventory? A. The results are controversial at best. B. It is too objective. C. Who gets to see the private and potentially sensitive data produced by the test? D. Such a test may be a civil rights violation. C. Who gets to see the private and potentially sensitive data produced by the test? What is the self? A. The characteristics we retain from our genetic history and share with our family members B. A personal database of memories and motivations from our entire life C. The patterns of thought, feelings, and actions we perceive in our own minds D. The cognitive organization of our brains and the structural layers of our nervous systems C. The patterns of thought, feelings, and actions we perceive in our own minds What is self-esteem? A. A judgment of the value of the self B. A person's description of his or her own positive characteristics C. A person's knowledge of his or her roles and memories D. A person's optimal patterns of thought, feelings, and actions A. A judgment of the value of the self The majority of people ____. A. judge themselves and others with complete fairness B. judge themselves more negatively and less positively than they judge others C. judge themselves and others very accurately D. judge themselves more positively and less negatively than they judge others D. judge themselves more positively and less negatively than they judge others One's knowledge of personal traits, feelings, roles, and memories is called ____. A. self-concept B. self-esteem C. self-schema D. self-awareness D. self-awareness Conscious efforts to manage the self are referred to as _______. A. self-esteem B. self-concept C. self-regulation D. self-awareness C. self-regulation What "self" do we play in the presence of other people? A. Collectivistic self B. Interpersonal self C. Societal self D. Individualistic self B. Interpersonal self Psychologists approach the study of the self by examining the ABCs. What are these? A. Appearance, beliefs, and cognition B. Affect, behavior, and cognition C. Actions, beliefs, and confidence D. Awareness, behavior, and concept B. Affect, behavior, and cognition According to a large meta-analysis involving thousands of participants (Kling, Hyde, Showers & Buswell, 1999), ____. A. males have a large self-esteem advantage over females B. females have increasingly lower self-esteem relative to males C. females have significantly lower self-esteem than males D. males have a very small self-esteem advantage over females D. males have a very small self-esteem advantage over females People with high self-esteem tend to have both greater happiness and persistence because they ____. A. have a reduced need for social relationships B. believe they will never be socially rejected C. have fewer "storms" in life D. are better able to weather bad news relative to those with low self-esteem D. are better able to weather bad news relative to those with low self-esteem How do most people respond when they talk about themselves, look at themselves in a mirror, watch a video of themselves, or "stand out from the crowd" in some way? A. With feelings of selflessness and discomfort B. With feelings of selflessness and pride C. With heightened self-awareness and feelings of pride D. With heightened self-awareness and an unpleasant feeling D. With heightened self-awareness and an unpleasant feeling Schizophrenia, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are all characterized by deficits of _________. A. self-consciousness B. self-esteem C. self-regulation D. self-awareness C. self-regulation What two categories of people influence the interpersonal self? A. A person's family and friends B. The older members of a person's family and family members of the same generation C. Those toward whom a person has positive feelings and those toward whom a person has negative feelings D. A person's significant others and the social groups to which the person belongs D. A person's significant others and the social groups to which the person belongs The self does not exist in a vacuum. It both shapes and is shaped by ____. A. the id B. our social environment C. our genes D. our temperament B. our social environment People with low self-esteem tend to respond to failure in one area by __________. A. overgeneralizing or assuming that they will fail in other areas too B. comparing themselves to people who did worse C. telling others that they are great at something else D. assuming that they will not fail in other areas A. overgeneralizing or assuming that they will fail in other areas too The tendency to overestimate how much attention other people pay to our behavior is known as _________. A. self-awareness B. self-regulation C. the spotlight effect D. adolescence We use _____ to help us achieve goals like eating more healthily or completing a frustrating task. A. self-esteem B. self-consciousness C. self-awareness D. self-regulation D. self-regulation A deep and enduring relationship with a caregiver or other person with whom a baby has shared many early experiences Attachment When we interact with family members, friends, coworkers, and other significant people, we experience the _________ self. A. personal B. social C. collective D. relational D. relational People are more likely to see themselves as unique in _______ cultures. A. individualistic B. interdependent C. collectivistic D. interpersonal A. individualistic The idea that children form a close attachment to their earliest caregivers and that this attachment pattern can affect aspects of the children's later life Attachment theory The process by which parents, teachers and others teach children the skills and social norms necessary to be well-functioning members of society Socialisation The varying patterns of behaviour that parents display as they interact with and discipline their children Parenting styles These kinds of parents are firm, punitive and unsympathetic parents who value obedience from the child and authority for themselves Authoritarian parents The generalisations children develop about what toys, activities and occupations are 'appropriate' for males and for females Gender schemas A quality allowing children to develop normally in spite of severe environmental risk factors Resilience Baby Megan has been described as irritable and irregular in her sleeping and eating habits. Megan's temperament is most likely: Difficult According to the text, Harlow's research on attachment showed that monkeys who were socially isolated displayed an inability to: Nurture their offspring Emily is very controlling and never allows her daughter, Jill, to initiate any activities. According to Erikson, eventually Jill will most likely experience __________ when she tries to act independently. Guilt Yoko is frequently ridiculed by a clique of popular girls in her class. Rather than letting the girls see how hurt she is by their remarks, she politely smiles in their presence and becomes friendly with some of the boys in her class to create a buffer between herself and the girls. Yoko's actions are best described as an example of: Self regulation During the last couple of years, 16-year-old Arthur has become distant from his parents and difficult to get along with. His parents are concerned because in addition to Arthur losing interest in school work, they suspect that he is using drugs. Based on the textbook, what would you tell Arthur's parents? Loss of interest in school work rarely takes place in isolation from other problem behaviours such as use of drugs Jamel must decide what he should do with $1000 that he found in the street. He decides to give it to a homeless shelter because his neighbours will think he is a great guy. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, Jamal is most likely to be at the __________ level of moral reasoning Conventional Matilda is 70-years-old and in good health, with no signs of dementia or Alzheimer's disease. Matilda is most likely to experience some difficulties remembering: What she had for lunch yesterday Social changes, such as becoming more inward looking, cautious and conforming, are most characteristic of: Late adulthood As part of their social development, children learn _________, which tell them what patterns of appearance and behaviour are associated with being male or female. Gender roles Teaching children to talk quietly in a restaurant is part of the process called _________. Socializaton The greatest threat to cognitive abilities in late adulthood is _________ disease. Alzheimers Adolescents' _________ identity may be more defining than their national citizenship. Social Not stealing because 'I might get caught' reflects the _________ stage of moral reasoning. Preconventional Parents who give their child great freedom and lax discipline Permissive parents Parents who reason with the child, encourage give-and-take, and are firm but understanding Authoritative parents Moral reasoning that is not yet based on the conventions or rules that guide social interactions in society Preconventional reasoning The growth of an individual's understanding of the concepts of right and wrong Moral development Moral reasoning that reflects the belief that morality consists of following rules and conventions Conventional reasoning Moral reasoning in which judgements are based on personal standards or universal principles of justice, equality and respect for human life Postconventional reasoning Adult concerns about producing something that may be of benefit to others in the future Generativity A sharp decline in mental functioning that tends to occur in late adulthood, a few years or months before death Terminal drop A preference for our mother's voice over our father's voice has been detected as early as immediately after birth The heart begins to beat during the ________ period of prenatal development. embryonic Alcohol may cause fetal damage by leaving chemical marks on DNA that switch genes abnormally on or off. This best illustrates an epigenetic effect. Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a a face-like image With repeated presentations of a bright red toy, 2-month-old Anita began to respond with less visual attention to the toy. Her decreasing responsiveness best illustrates habituation Immediately after birth, newborns prefer their own mother's voice to that of another woman's voice. This is best explained by the interaction of heredity and environment that takes place inside the zygote. uterus Four weeks after having been exposed to a vibrating, honking device placed on its mother's abdomen, a fetus demonstrates habituation Human sperm cells ________ than egg cells. are smaller The placenta develops from the outer cells of the zygote Distinguishing between very gradual and very abrupt developmental changes over the life span is most central to the major issue of continuity and stages