MDMP Advanced Mastery Examination With
Correct Solutions(2026/2027)
1. During Step 1: Receipt of Mission, what is the specific time-management rule used to ensure
subordinate units have enough time to plan?
A) The 50/50 Rule
B) The 1/3 - 2/3 Rule
C) The 80/20 Rule
D) The 24-hour Rule
Correct Answer: B
2. Which of the following is a mandatory output of Step 2: Mission Analysis?
A) The initial Synchronization Matrix
B) The approved Mission Statement
C) The Decision Support Template (DST)
D) Course of Action Sketches
Correct Answer: B
3. Information requirements that the commander identifies as being critical to facilitating
timely decision-making are called:
A) PIR
B) FFIR
C) CCIR
D) EEFI
Correct Answer: C
4. In Step 3: COA Development, "Feasibility" is a screening criterion that asks:
A) Does the COA accomplish the mission?
B) Does the unit have the time, space, and resources?
C) Is the COA significantly different from others?
D) Is the cost of the mission worth the risk?
Correct Answer: B
5. During Step 4: COA Analysis, which war-gaming technique is best for a nonlinear, non-
contiguous area of operations?
A) Belt Technique
B) Box Technique
C) Avenue-in-Depth Technique
D) Sector Technique
Correct Answer: B
6. What is the primary purpose of the "Counteraction" phase during a war-game cycle?
A) To plan the next friendly move
B) To determine how the enemy will respond to the friendly action
C) To calculate fuel consumption
D) To brief the Commander on the result
Correct Answer: B
7. In Step 5: COA Comparison, who is responsible for developing the criteria and the weight of
each criterion in the Decision Matrix?
, A) The Commander
B) The Chief of Staff (CoS) or XO
C) The S-3
D) The S-2
Correct Answer: A
8. Following Step 6: COA Approval, which document is issued to subordinate units to finalize
their parallel planning?
A) WARNO 1
B) WARNO 2
C) WARNO 3
D) The OPORD
Correct Answer: C
9. In the 5-paragraph OPORD format, which paragraph details the "Tasks to Subordinate Units"?
A) Paragraph 1: Situation
B) Paragraph 2: Mission
C) Paragraph 3: Execution
D) Paragraph 4: Sustainment
Correct Answer: C
10. A "Constraint" that dictates a unit must cross the line of departure no later than 0400 is
considered:
A) A Prohibitive Constraint
B) A General Guideline
C) An Affirmative Constraint
D) An Assumption
Correct Answer: C
11. Which staff officer leads the MDMP process and ensures the synchronization of the staff?
A) The Commander
B) The XO or Chief of Staff
C) The S-3
D) The CSM
Correct Answer: B
12. During Mission Analysis, "Assumptions" are used only when:
A) The S-2 is lazy
B) A fact is missing but necessary to continue planning
C) The Commander is not present
D) The mission is too easy
Correct Answer: B
13. "Relative Combat Power" analysis in Step 3 helps the staff understand:
A) The total number of soldiers on both sides
B) Friendly strengths versus enemy weaknesses
C) The price of ammunition
D) The speed of the trucks
Correct Answer: B
Correct Solutions(2026/2027)
1. During Step 1: Receipt of Mission, what is the specific time-management rule used to ensure
subordinate units have enough time to plan?
A) The 50/50 Rule
B) The 1/3 - 2/3 Rule
C) The 80/20 Rule
D) The 24-hour Rule
Correct Answer: B
2. Which of the following is a mandatory output of Step 2: Mission Analysis?
A) The initial Synchronization Matrix
B) The approved Mission Statement
C) The Decision Support Template (DST)
D) Course of Action Sketches
Correct Answer: B
3. Information requirements that the commander identifies as being critical to facilitating
timely decision-making are called:
A) PIR
B) FFIR
C) CCIR
D) EEFI
Correct Answer: C
4. In Step 3: COA Development, "Feasibility" is a screening criterion that asks:
A) Does the COA accomplish the mission?
B) Does the unit have the time, space, and resources?
C) Is the COA significantly different from others?
D) Is the cost of the mission worth the risk?
Correct Answer: B
5. During Step 4: COA Analysis, which war-gaming technique is best for a nonlinear, non-
contiguous area of operations?
A) Belt Technique
B) Box Technique
C) Avenue-in-Depth Technique
D) Sector Technique
Correct Answer: B
6. What is the primary purpose of the "Counteraction" phase during a war-game cycle?
A) To plan the next friendly move
B) To determine how the enemy will respond to the friendly action
C) To calculate fuel consumption
D) To brief the Commander on the result
Correct Answer: B
7. In Step 5: COA Comparison, who is responsible for developing the criteria and the weight of
each criterion in the Decision Matrix?
, A) The Commander
B) The Chief of Staff (CoS) or XO
C) The S-3
D) The S-2
Correct Answer: A
8. Following Step 6: COA Approval, which document is issued to subordinate units to finalize
their parallel planning?
A) WARNO 1
B) WARNO 2
C) WARNO 3
D) The OPORD
Correct Answer: C
9. In the 5-paragraph OPORD format, which paragraph details the "Tasks to Subordinate Units"?
A) Paragraph 1: Situation
B) Paragraph 2: Mission
C) Paragraph 3: Execution
D) Paragraph 4: Sustainment
Correct Answer: C
10. A "Constraint" that dictates a unit must cross the line of departure no later than 0400 is
considered:
A) A Prohibitive Constraint
B) A General Guideline
C) An Affirmative Constraint
D) An Assumption
Correct Answer: C
11. Which staff officer leads the MDMP process and ensures the synchronization of the staff?
A) The Commander
B) The XO or Chief of Staff
C) The S-3
D) The CSM
Correct Answer: B
12. During Mission Analysis, "Assumptions" are used only when:
A) The S-2 is lazy
B) A fact is missing but necessary to continue planning
C) The Commander is not present
D) The mission is too easy
Correct Answer: B
13. "Relative Combat Power" analysis in Step 3 helps the staff understand:
A) The total number of soldiers on both sides
B) Friendly strengths versus enemy weaknesses
C) The price of ammunition
D) The speed of the trucks
Correct Answer: B
