PROPHECY CORE MANDATORY
PARTS 1, 2 & 3
NURSING RELIAS EXAM
2026/2027 Edition
180 Questions and Correct Answers
Already Graded A+
100% Verified
Core Domains:
Patient Safety & Quality • Nursing Fundamentals • Infection Prevention
Legal & Ethical Responsibilities • Clinical Decision-Making • Medication Administration
Documentation & Communication • Delegation & Prioritization
Care Planning • Evidence-Based Nursing Interventions
, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
Introduction
This Prophecy Core Mandatory Parts 1, 2 & 3 Nursing Exam document contains 180 multiple-choice
questions designed to assess comprehensive nursing competencies required on the Relias platform.
The exam covers ten core domains essential for safe and effective nursing practice: Patient Safety &
Quality, Nursing Fundamentals, Infection Prevention, Legal & Ethical Responsibilities, Clinical
Decision-Making, Medication Administration, Documentation & Communication, Delegation &
Prioritization, Care Planning, and Evidence-Based Nursing Interventions.
Each question follows a single-best-answer format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer
is highlighted in bold green text for easy identification. A detailed rationale accompanies each
answer, explaining nursing priorities, evidence-based interventions, patient safety considerations, and
clinical reasoning.
Domain 1: Patient Safety & Quality (Questions 1-18)
This domain covers patient identification, error prevention, safety protocols, National Patient Safety
Goals, and quality improvement initiatives essential for delivering safe patient care.
Question 1: What is the primary goal of the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)?
A. To reduce healthcare costs
B. To improve patient safety and quality of care
C. To increase hospital revenue
D. To streamline documentation
Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals, established by The Joint Commission, aim to
improve patient safety and quality of care by addressing specific areas of concern such as
patient identification, medication safety, infection prevention, and communication failures.
Question 2: Which two patient identifiers must be used before administering medication?
A. Name and room number
B. Name and date of birth
C. Name and diagnosis
D. Room number and date of birth
Rationale: Using at least two patient identifiers (name and date of birth) before medication
administration ensures correct patient identification and prevents medication errors. Room
numbers and diagnoses are not appropriate identifiers as they can change or be shared by
multiple patients.
Question 3: What is the purpose of a sentinel event report?
A. To punish the staff involved
B. To identify system failures and prevent recurrence
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, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
C. To document patient complaints
D. To satisfy insurance requirements
Rationale: Sentinel event reports are used to identify system failures, conduct root cause
analysis, and implement improvements to prevent similar events from occurring. The focus is on
system improvement rather than individual blame.
Question 4: Which technique is most effective in preventing healthcare-associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves for all patient contact
B. Proper hand hygiene
C. Using prophylactic antibiotics
D. Isolating all patients
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure for preventing healthcare-
associated infections. The CDC recommends hand hygiene before and after patient contact, after
removing gloves, and before performing invasive procedures.
Question 5: What is the 'time-out' procedure used before surgery?
A. A rest period for the surgical team
B. A verification process to confirm correct patient, procedure, and site
C. A time limit for surgical procedures
D. A documentation pause
Rationale: The surgical time-out is a standardized verification process performed immediately
before the procedure begins. The team pauses to verify the correct patient, procedure, site, and
any special requirements, preventing wrong-site and wrong-patient surgeries.
Question 6: What is a 'never event' in healthcare?
A. An event that rarely occurs
B. A serious, largely preventable patient safety incident
C. An event that cannot be reported
D. An event that requires no intervention
Rationale: Never events are serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents that should
not occur if available preventive measures are implemented. Examples include wrong-site
surgery, patient suicide, and infant discharge to wrong person.
Question 7: Which organization accredits healthcare organizations and sets patient safety
standards?
A. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. The Joint Commission (TJC)
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
D. American Medical Association (AMA)
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, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
Rationale: The Joint Commission is the primary accrediting body for healthcare organizations
in the United States. It sets standards for patient safety and quality, conducts surveys, and
requires compliance with National Patient Safety Goals.
Question 8: What is the SBAR communication tool used for?
A. Documenting medication administration
B. Structured communication between healthcare team members
C. Calculating medication dosages
D. Scheduling patient appointments
Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) provides a structured
framework for communication between healthcare team members, ensuring critical
information is conveyed clearly and completely during handoffs and urgent situations.
Question 9: What is the purpose of fall risk assessment tools like the Morse Fall Scale?
A. To predict which patients will definitely fall
B. To identify patients at risk for falls and guide interventions
C. To document patient mobility
D. To satisfy regulatory requirements only
Rationale: Fall risk assessment tools identify patients at increased risk for falls based on
factors such as history of falling, secondary diagnosis, ambulatory aid use, IV therapy, gait, and
mental status. Results guide implementation of appropriate fall prevention interventions.
Question 10: Which color is typically used to identify patients at high risk for falls?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue
Rationale: Yellow is commonly used to identify patients at high risk for falls through yellow
armbands, socks, or signs. This visual alert reminds all staff members to implement fall
prevention measures for these patients.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?
A. To assign blame for errors
B. To identify underlying system factors contributing to adverse events
C. To document patient outcomes
D. To justify staffing levels
Rationale: Root cause analysis is a systematic process for identifying the underlying system
factors that contributed to an adverse event. The goal is to understand what happened, why it
happened, and what can be done to prevent recurrence.
Page 4 of 52
PARTS 1, 2 & 3
NURSING RELIAS EXAM
2026/2027 Edition
180 Questions and Correct Answers
Already Graded A+
100% Verified
Core Domains:
Patient Safety & Quality • Nursing Fundamentals • Infection Prevention
Legal & Ethical Responsibilities • Clinical Decision-Making • Medication Administration
Documentation & Communication • Delegation & Prioritization
Care Planning • Evidence-Based Nursing Interventions
, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
Introduction
This Prophecy Core Mandatory Parts 1, 2 & 3 Nursing Exam document contains 180 multiple-choice
questions designed to assess comprehensive nursing competencies required on the Relias platform.
The exam covers ten core domains essential for safe and effective nursing practice: Patient Safety &
Quality, Nursing Fundamentals, Infection Prevention, Legal & Ethical Responsibilities, Clinical
Decision-Making, Medication Administration, Documentation & Communication, Delegation &
Prioritization, Care Planning, and Evidence-Based Nursing Interventions.
Each question follows a single-best-answer format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer
is highlighted in bold green text for easy identification. A detailed rationale accompanies each
answer, explaining nursing priorities, evidence-based interventions, patient safety considerations, and
clinical reasoning.
Domain 1: Patient Safety & Quality (Questions 1-18)
This domain covers patient identification, error prevention, safety protocols, National Patient Safety
Goals, and quality improvement initiatives essential for delivering safe patient care.
Question 1: What is the primary goal of the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)?
A. To reduce healthcare costs
B. To improve patient safety and quality of care
C. To increase hospital revenue
D. To streamline documentation
Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals, established by The Joint Commission, aim to
improve patient safety and quality of care by addressing specific areas of concern such as
patient identification, medication safety, infection prevention, and communication failures.
Question 2: Which two patient identifiers must be used before administering medication?
A. Name and room number
B. Name and date of birth
C. Name and diagnosis
D. Room number and date of birth
Rationale: Using at least two patient identifiers (name and date of birth) before medication
administration ensures correct patient identification and prevents medication errors. Room
numbers and diagnoses are not appropriate identifiers as they can change or be shared by
multiple patients.
Question 3: What is the purpose of a sentinel event report?
A. To punish the staff involved
B. To identify system failures and prevent recurrence
Page 2 of 52
, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
C. To document patient complaints
D. To satisfy insurance requirements
Rationale: Sentinel event reports are used to identify system failures, conduct root cause
analysis, and implement improvements to prevent similar events from occurring. The focus is on
system improvement rather than individual blame.
Question 4: Which technique is most effective in preventing healthcare-associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves for all patient contact
B. Proper hand hygiene
C. Using prophylactic antibiotics
D. Isolating all patients
Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure for preventing healthcare-
associated infections. The CDC recommends hand hygiene before and after patient contact, after
removing gloves, and before performing invasive procedures.
Question 5: What is the 'time-out' procedure used before surgery?
A. A rest period for the surgical team
B. A verification process to confirm correct patient, procedure, and site
C. A time limit for surgical procedures
D. A documentation pause
Rationale: The surgical time-out is a standardized verification process performed immediately
before the procedure begins. The team pauses to verify the correct patient, procedure, site, and
any special requirements, preventing wrong-site and wrong-patient surgeries.
Question 6: What is a 'never event' in healthcare?
A. An event that rarely occurs
B. A serious, largely preventable patient safety incident
C. An event that cannot be reported
D. An event that requires no intervention
Rationale: Never events are serious, largely preventable patient safety incidents that should
not occur if available preventive measures are implemented. Examples include wrong-site
surgery, patient suicide, and infant discharge to wrong person.
Question 7: Which organization accredits healthcare organizations and sets patient safety
standards?
A. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. The Joint Commission (TJC)
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
D. American Medical Association (AMA)
Page 3 of 52
, Prophecy Core Mandatory Nursing Exam
Rationale: The Joint Commission is the primary accrediting body for healthcare organizations
in the United States. It sets standards for patient safety and quality, conducts surveys, and
requires compliance with National Patient Safety Goals.
Question 8: What is the SBAR communication tool used for?
A. Documenting medication administration
B. Structured communication between healthcare team members
C. Calculating medication dosages
D. Scheduling patient appointments
Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) provides a structured
framework for communication between healthcare team members, ensuring critical
information is conveyed clearly and completely during handoffs and urgent situations.
Question 9: What is the purpose of fall risk assessment tools like the Morse Fall Scale?
A. To predict which patients will definitely fall
B. To identify patients at risk for falls and guide interventions
C. To document patient mobility
D. To satisfy regulatory requirements only
Rationale: Fall risk assessment tools identify patients at increased risk for falls based on
factors such as history of falling, secondary diagnosis, ambulatory aid use, IV therapy, gait, and
mental status. Results guide implementation of appropriate fall prevention interventions.
Question 10: Which color is typically used to identify patients at high risk for falls?
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Blue
Rationale: Yellow is commonly used to identify patients at high risk for falls through yellow
armbands, socks, or signs. This visual alert reminds all staff members to implement fall
prevention measures for these patients.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of a root cause analysis (RCA)?
A. To assign blame for errors
B. To identify underlying system factors contributing to adverse events
C. To document patient outcomes
D. To justify staffing levels
Rationale: Root cause analysis is a systematic process for identifying the underlying system
factors that contributed to an adverse event. The goal is to understand what happened, why it
happened, and what can be done to prevent recurrence.
Page 4 of 52
