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RADT Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027:
Comprehensive Multiple Choice Questions
with Verified & Revised Answers for
Radiologic Technology Success – Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Care & Safety (25 Questions)
Q1: A patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) reports a shellfish allergy. What is the
most appropriate action for the radiologic technologist?
A. Cancel the examination and refer the patient for alternative imaging
B. Proceed with the examination using non-ionic contrast media without premedication
C. Notify the radiologist and ensure appropriate premedication protocol is initiated [CORRECT]
D. Switch to oral contrast media for the examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A documented shellfish allergy indicates potential iodinated contrast hypersensitivity.
Per ASRT practice standards and ARRT content specifications, the technologist must notify the
radiologist to evaluate the risk-benefit ratio and implement premedication (typically
corticosteroids and antihistamines) or consider alternative imaging. Option A is premature
without physician consultation. Option B risks severe reaction. Option D is inappropriate as IVU
requires intravenous contrast.
Q2: [PATIENT CARE SCENARIO] An 85-year-old patient arrives for a chest X-ray using a
wheelchair and reports feeling dizzy when standing. What is the correct transfer technique?
A. Have the patient stand quickly to minimize dizziness, then assist to the erect position
B. Perform the examination with the patient seated in the wheelchair using a portable unit
C. Use a two-person transfer with the patient rising slowly, allowing orthostatic stabilization
before walking [CORRECT]
D. Position the patient supine on the table for a recumbent chest examination
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension in elderly patients requires gradual position changes to
prevent falls. Per patient safety protocols (ASRT), a two-person transfer with slow rising allows
cardiovascular compensation. The erect position is preferred for chest radiography to
demonstrate air-fluid levels and normal cardiac silhouette. Option A risks syncope and injury.
Option B compromises image quality (magnification, inability to demonstrate pleural effusions).
Option D is suboptimal for routine chest evaluation.
Q3: According to the 2026 ARRT content specifications, what is the minimum lead equivalency
required for protective aprons used in fluoroscopy?
A. 0.25 mm Pb
B. 0.35 mm Pb
C. 0.5 mm Pb [CORRECT]
D. 1.0 mm Pb
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Per NCRP Report No. 168 and 2026 ARRT specifications, protective aprons for
fluoroscopy (where scatter radiation exposure is higher) require minimum 0.5 mm lead
equivalency. General radiography requires 0.25-0.5 mm. Option A is insufficient for fluoroscopy.
Option B is intermediate but below current standard. Option D exceeds requirements and creates
unnecessary weight burden.
Q4: [CONTRAST REACTION ALGORITHM] During an IV contrast injection, the patient
develops urticaria (hives) and mild pruritus but remains hemodynamically stable with no
respiratory compromise. What is the immediate management?
A. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly immediately
B. Stop the injection, monitor vital signs, and administer diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IV/IM
[CORRECT]
C. Continue the injection at reduced rate while observing
D. Activate emergency response team (code blue) immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This describes a mild (Grade 1) contrast reaction per ACR Manual on Contrast Media.
Management includes stopping the injection, monitoring, and administering antihistamine.
Epinephrine (A) is reserved for moderate-severe reactions with bronchospasm or hypotension.
Continuing injection (C) risks progression. Code blue (D) is excessive for mild reactions without
respiratory/cardiovascular compromise.
,3
Q5: A patient with suspected hip fracture is brought to the radiology department. The patient is in
severe pain and the affected leg is externally rotated and shortened. What positioning
modification is required?
A. Perform the examination with the patient supine and leg internally rotated
B. Obtain AP and lateral views with gentle manipulation only to the extent tolerated, using frog-
leg lateral if necessary [CORRECT]
C. Force internal rotation for true AP projection despite patient discomfort
D. Delay the examination until orthopedic consultation reduces the fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trauma positioning requires balancing diagnostic necessity with patient safety and
comfort. Per trauma radiography protocols (Merrill's Atlas), gentle positioning to tolerance with
modified views (frog-leg lateral) minimizes pain while obtaining diagnostic information. Forcing
rotation (C) risks fracture displacement and neurovascular injury. Option A describes standard
positioning but is contraindicated with suspected fracture. Option D delays necessary diagnostic
imaging.
Q6: [INFECTION CONTROL] A patient with confirmed pulmonary tuberculosis requires a
chest X-ray. What transmission-based precautions are required?
A. Standard precautions only; tuberculosis is not contagious
B. Contact precautions; gown and gloves required
C. Airborne precautions; N95 respirator and negative pressure room [CORRECT]
D. Droplet precautions; surgical mask within 3 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. CDC and
ASRT guidelines require airborne precautions: N95 respirator (or PAPR), negative pressure room
if available, and minimal personnel exposure. Contact precautions (B) are for resistant organisms
requiring barrier protection. Droplet precautions (D) are for large droplet transmission (influenza,
pertussis).
Q7: What is the primary purpose of the "time-out" procedure before invasive radiologic
procedures?
A. To verify patient identity, procedure, and site to prevent wrong-patient, wrong-procedure,
wrong-site errors [CORRECT]
B. To allow the patient to void before the examination
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C. To calculate exposure factors for the procedure
D. To document pregnancy status in female patients of childbearing age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Universal Protocol and Joint Commission requirements mandate a "time-out"
immediately before invasive procedures to verify correct patient, procedure, site, and laterality.
This safety measure prevents "never events." Options B, C, and D describe important but
separate pre-procedure assessments, not the time-out purpose.
Q8: [VITAL SIGNS] Prior to intravenous contrast administration, the patient's blood pressure is
180/110 mmHg. What is the appropriate action?
A. Proceed with the examination; hypertension is not a contraindication to contrast
B. Administer antihypertensive medication and proceed when normalized
C. Notify the radiologist to evaluate risk-benefit; relative contraindication to contrast
[CORRECT]
D. Cancel the examination and refer to emergency department
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe uncontrolled hypertension (≥180/110 mmHg) is a relative contraindication to
iodinated contrast due to risk of contrast-induced nephropathy and hypertensive crisis. Per ACR
guidelines, the radiologist must evaluate the urgency of the examination against risks. Option A
ignores the risk. Option B is outside technologist scope. Option D is excessive without physician
direction.
Q9: A patient with a known history of asthma is scheduled for an upper GI series with barium.
What pre-procedure assessment is essential?
A. Premedication with corticosteroids is mandatory for all asthmatics
B. Ensure bronchodilator availability; barium aspiration risk requires heightened vigilance
[CORRECT]
C. Switch to water-soluble contrast (Gastrografin) to avoid barium risks
D. Postpone the examination until asthma is completely controlled
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asthma increases aspiration risk during oral contrast studies. Essential preparation
includes ensuring bronchodilators are available, having suction ready, and monitoring for
respiratory distress. Water-soluble contrast (C) is contraindicated for aspiration (causes severe
RADT Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027:
Comprehensive Multiple Choice Questions
with Verified & Revised Answers for
Radiologic Technology Success – Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Care & Safety (25 Questions)
Q1: A patient scheduled for an intravenous urogram (IVU) reports a shellfish allergy. What is the
most appropriate action for the radiologic technologist?
A. Cancel the examination and refer the patient for alternative imaging
B. Proceed with the examination using non-ionic contrast media without premedication
C. Notify the radiologist and ensure appropriate premedication protocol is initiated [CORRECT]
D. Switch to oral contrast media for the examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A documented shellfish allergy indicates potential iodinated contrast hypersensitivity.
Per ASRT practice standards and ARRT content specifications, the technologist must notify the
radiologist to evaluate the risk-benefit ratio and implement premedication (typically
corticosteroids and antihistamines) or consider alternative imaging. Option A is premature
without physician consultation. Option B risks severe reaction. Option D is inappropriate as IVU
requires intravenous contrast.
Q2: [PATIENT CARE SCENARIO] An 85-year-old patient arrives for a chest X-ray using a
wheelchair and reports feeling dizzy when standing. What is the correct transfer technique?
A. Have the patient stand quickly to minimize dizziness, then assist to the erect position
B. Perform the examination with the patient seated in the wheelchair using a portable unit
C. Use a two-person transfer with the patient rising slowly, allowing orthostatic stabilization
before walking [CORRECT]
D. Position the patient supine on the table for a recumbent chest examination
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension in elderly patients requires gradual position changes to
prevent falls. Per patient safety protocols (ASRT), a two-person transfer with slow rising allows
cardiovascular compensation. The erect position is preferred for chest radiography to
demonstrate air-fluid levels and normal cardiac silhouette. Option A risks syncope and injury.
Option B compromises image quality (magnification, inability to demonstrate pleural effusions).
Option D is suboptimal for routine chest evaluation.
Q3: According to the 2026 ARRT content specifications, what is the minimum lead equivalency
required for protective aprons used in fluoroscopy?
A. 0.25 mm Pb
B. 0.35 mm Pb
C. 0.5 mm Pb [CORRECT]
D. 1.0 mm Pb
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Per NCRP Report No. 168 and 2026 ARRT specifications, protective aprons for
fluoroscopy (where scatter radiation exposure is higher) require minimum 0.5 mm lead
equivalency. General radiography requires 0.25-0.5 mm. Option A is insufficient for fluoroscopy.
Option B is intermediate but below current standard. Option D exceeds requirements and creates
unnecessary weight burden.
Q4: [CONTRAST REACTION ALGORITHM] During an IV contrast injection, the patient
develops urticaria (hives) and mild pruritus but remains hemodynamically stable with no
respiratory compromise. What is the immediate management?
A. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly immediately
B. Stop the injection, monitor vital signs, and administer diphenhydramine 25-50 mg IV/IM
[CORRECT]
C. Continue the injection at reduced rate while observing
D. Activate emergency response team (code blue) immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This describes a mild (Grade 1) contrast reaction per ACR Manual on Contrast Media.
Management includes stopping the injection, monitoring, and administering antihistamine.
Epinephrine (A) is reserved for moderate-severe reactions with bronchospasm or hypotension.
Continuing injection (C) risks progression. Code blue (D) is excessive for mild reactions without
respiratory/cardiovascular compromise.
,3
Q5: A patient with suspected hip fracture is brought to the radiology department. The patient is in
severe pain and the affected leg is externally rotated and shortened. What positioning
modification is required?
A. Perform the examination with the patient supine and leg internally rotated
B. Obtain AP and lateral views with gentle manipulation only to the extent tolerated, using frog-
leg lateral if necessary [CORRECT]
C. Force internal rotation for true AP projection despite patient discomfort
D. Delay the examination until orthopedic consultation reduces the fracture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trauma positioning requires balancing diagnostic necessity with patient safety and
comfort. Per trauma radiography protocols (Merrill's Atlas), gentle positioning to tolerance with
modified views (frog-leg lateral) minimizes pain while obtaining diagnostic information. Forcing
rotation (C) risks fracture displacement and neurovascular injury. Option A describes standard
positioning but is contraindicated with suspected fracture. Option D delays necessary diagnostic
imaging.
Q6: [INFECTION CONTROL] A patient with confirmed pulmonary tuberculosis requires a
chest X-ray. What transmission-based precautions are required?
A. Standard precautions only; tuberculosis is not contagious
B. Contact precautions; gown and gloves required
C. Airborne precautions; N95 respirator and negative pressure room [CORRECT]
D. Droplet precautions; surgical mask within 3 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. CDC and
ASRT guidelines require airborne precautions: N95 respirator (or PAPR), negative pressure room
if available, and minimal personnel exposure. Contact precautions (B) are for resistant organisms
requiring barrier protection. Droplet precautions (D) are for large droplet transmission (influenza,
pertussis).
Q7: What is the primary purpose of the "time-out" procedure before invasive radiologic
procedures?
A. To verify patient identity, procedure, and site to prevent wrong-patient, wrong-procedure,
wrong-site errors [CORRECT]
B. To allow the patient to void before the examination
, 4
C. To calculate exposure factors for the procedure
D. To document pregnancy status in female patients of childbearing age
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Universal Protocol and Joint Commission requirements mandate a "time-out"
immediately before invasive procedures to verify correct patient, procedure, site, and laterality.
This safety measure prevents "never events." Options B, C, and D describe important but
separate pre-procedure assessments, not the time-out purpose.
Q8: [VITAL SIGNS] Prior to intravenous contrast administration, the patient's blood pressure is
180/110 mmHg. What is the appropriate action?
A. Proceed with the examination; hypertension is not a contraindication to contrast
B. Administer antihypertensive medication and proceed when normalized
C. Notify the radiologist to evaluate risk-benefit; relative contraindication to contrast
[CORRECT]
D. Cancel the examination and refer to emergency department
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe uncontrolled hypertension (≥180/110 mmHg) is a relative contraindication to
iodinated contrast due to risk of contrast-induced nephropathy and hypertensive crisis. Per ACR
guidelines, the radiologist must evaluate the urgency of the examination against risks. Option A
ignores the risk. Option B is outside technologist scope. Option D is excessive without physician
direction.
Q9: A patient with a known history of asthma is scheduled for an upper GI series with barium.
What pre-procedure assessment is essential?
A. Premedication with corticosteroids is mandatory for all asthmatics
B. Ensure bronchodilator availability; barium aspiration risk requires heightened vigilance
[CORRECT]
C. Switch to water-soluble contrast (Gastrografin) to avoid barium risks
D. Postpone the examination until asthma is completely controlled
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asthma increases aspiration risk during oral contrast studies. Essential preparation
includes ensuring bronchodilators are available, having suction ready, and monitoring for
respiratory distress. Water-soluble contrast (C) is contraindicated for aspiration (causes severe
