1
ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Form A
Actual Exam 2026/2027: Comprehensive Multiple
Choice Questions with Verified & Revised
Answers – Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: Management of Care (15 questions)
Q1 (Traditional): A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four patients. Which task
should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's incision for signs of infection
B. Administering oral medications to a patient with heart failure
C. Assisting an elderly patient with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation to UAP follows the 5 Rights of Delegation and scope of practice.
Ambulation assistance (C) is within UAP scope—routine, non-invasive, stable patient,
predictable outcome. Assessment (A), medication administration (B), and patient teaching (D)
require nursing judgment and licensure per state Nurse Practice Acts and ATI delegation
guidelines. The RN retains accountability for delegated tasks. [CORRECT]
Q2 (Traditional): Using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework,
which patient should the nurse see first?
A. A patient with diabetes requesting a snack before lunch
B. A patient with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 86%
C. A patient scheduled for discharge who needs medication reconciliation
D. A patient with stable hypertension requesting pain medication for a headache rated 3/10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCs framework prioritizes life-threatening conditions. Oxygen saturation of
86% indicates severe hypoxemia (Breathing priority) requiring immediate intervention—oxygen,
assessment, possible respiratory failure. The other patients have stable, non-life-threatening
needs that can wait. ATI prioritization hierarchy: Life-threatening > Safety > Pain/Comfort.
[CORRECT]
,2
Q3 (Traditional): A nurse is supervising a newly hired LPN/LVN. Which observation requires
immediate intervention by the supervising RN?
A. The LPN documents vital signs in the electronic health record
B. The LPN administers an intramuscular injection to a patient
C. The LPN inserts a urinary catheter into a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury
D. The LPN assists with data collection by taking a patient's health history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: LPN/LVN scope varies by state but generally excludes complex assessments and
procedures requiring nursing judgment. Inserting catheters in patients with suspected spinal
injuries (risk of autonomic dysreflexia, complex assessment needs) requires RN-level assessment
and intervention. The RN must intervene immediately. Vital signs (A), IM injections (B), and
data collection assistance (D) are typically within LPN scope. [CORRECT]
Q4 (Traditional): Which action by the nurse demonstrates appropriate advocacy for a patient?
A. Following the physician's orders without question to maintain team harmony
B. Informing a patient that their insurance will not cover a needed procedure and leaving the
decision to them
C. Questioning a medication order that appears inappropriate for the patient's condition and
contacting the prescriber for clarification
D. Avoiding documentation of a patient complaint to prevent conflict with administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patient advocacy requires acting in the patient's best interest, including questioning
potentially harmful orders, ensuring informed consent, and protecting patient rights. Option C
demonstrates the nurse's responsibility to verify orders and prevent errors (ATI ethical
principles). Blind obedience (A), abandonment of support (B), and concealment (D) violate
advocacy, patient rights, and professional standards. [CORRECT]
Q5 (Traditional): A patient is brought to the emergency department unconscious after a motor
vehicle accident. The patient's spouse is not present, and no advance directive is available. Who
has the legal authority to make medical decisions for this patient?
A. The attending physician
B. The charge nurse
C. The closest available family member or next of kin per state law
D. The hospital administrator
,3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When patients lack decision-making capacity and no advance directive exists,
healthcare decisions default to the next of kin or closest family member per state surrogate
decision-making laws (spouse, adult children, parents, siblings in order). Physicians (A) provide
treatment recommendations but cannot make non-emergency decisions without authorization.
Nurses (B) and administrators (D) have no legal authority for patient decisions. [CORRECT]
Q6 (Traditional): A nurse discovers that a colleague has documented administering a
medication that was not actually given. What is the nurse's legal and ethical obligation?
A. Ignore the incident to protect the colleague's employment
B. Confront the colleague privately and accept their explanation without further action
C. Report the incident to the nurse manager or appropriate authority per facility policy and state
mandatory reporting requirements
D. Document the medication as given to maintain consistency with the colleague's
documentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Falsification of medical records is fraud, patient endangerment, and professional
misconduct requiring mandatory reporting. The observing nurse must report per chain of
command, facility policy, and state mandatory reporting laws for patient safety and professional
accountability. Concealment (A, B) and falsification (D) make the observing nurse complicit and
liable. [CORRECT]
Q7 (Traditional): Which patient assignment demonstrates appropriate nurse-to-patient matching
based on acuity and competency?
A. Assigning a float nurse from pediatrics to manage four patients with ventilators and multiple
drips on a step-down unit
B. Assigning a new graduate nurse to a patient requiring complex wound VAC dressing changes
without supervision
C. Assigning an experienced ICU nurse to a patient with hemodynamic instability requiring
frequent titration of vasoactive medications
D. Assigning an LPN to perform the initial assessment on a patient with chest pain of unknown
origin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assignment matching requires aligning patient acuity with nurse competency. An
experienced ICU nurse has the skills for hemodynamic monitoring and vasoactive titration. Float
nurses without relevant experience (A) and new graduates without supervision (B) create unsafe
, 4
assignments. LPNs (D) typically cannot perform initial comprehensive assessments, particularly
for high-acuity presentations. [CORRECT]
Q8 (Traditional): A nurse is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce hospital-
acquired infections. Which activity demonstrates appropriate use of evidence-based practice?
A. Continuing current practices because "we've always done it this way"
B. Reviewing current research on infection prevention, comparing outcomes with current
practice, and implementing changes supported by evidence
C. Implementing a new practice suggested by a pharmaceutical representative without literature
review
D. Copying practices from a competing hospital without considering patient population
differences
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based practice (EBP) integrates best current research evidence, clinical
expertise, and patient values. The nurse should: ask clinical questions, acquire evidence, appraise
quality, apply to practice, and assess outcomes (ATI EBP model). Tradition (A), marketing
influence (C), and unexamined adoption (D) violate EBP principles. [CORRECT]
Q9 (Traditional): Which scenario represents a violation of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability
and Accountability Act) regulations?
A. A nurse discusses a patient's condition with the patient's spouse who is listed in the medical
record as authorized to receive information
B. A nurse shares patient information with the interdisciplinary care team involved in the
patient's treatment
C. A nurse looks up a celebrity's medical record out of curiosity despite having no treatment
relationship with the patient
D. A nurse provides patient information to a quality improvement committee reviewing care
processes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIPAA requires minimum necessary access for treatment, payment, or healthcare
operations. Accessing records without treatment need (curiosity) is unauthorized access—a
privacy violation with civil and criminal penalties. Spousal discussion with authorization (A),
care team communication (B), and quality improvement (D) are permitted disclosures.
[CORRECT]
ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Form A
Actual Exam 2026/2027: Comprehensive Multiple
Choice Questions with Verified & Revised
Answers – Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: Management of Care (15 questions)
Q1 (Traditional): A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four patients. Which task
should the nurse delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a postoperative patient's incision for signs of infection
B. Administering oral medications to a patient with heart failure
C. Assisting an elderly patient with ambulation to the bathroom
D. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic patient about insulin administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Delegation to UAP follows the 5 Rights of Delegation and scope of practice.
Ambulation assistance (C) is within UAP scope—routine, non-invasive, stable patient,
predictable outcome. Assessment (A), medication administration (B), and patient teaching (D)
require nursing judgment and licensure per state Nurse Practice Acts and ATI delegation
guidelines. The RN retains accountability for delegated tasks. [CORRECT]
Q2 (Traditional): Using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework,
which patient should the nurse see first?
A. A patient with diabetes requesting a snack before lunch
B. A patient with pneumonia whose oxygen saturation dropped from 94% to 86%
C. A patient scheduled for discharge who needs medication reconciliation
D. A patient with stable hypertension requesting pain medication for a headache rated 3/10
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The ABCs framework prioritizes life-threatening conditions. Oxygen saturation of
86% indicates severe hypoxemia (Breathing priority) requiring immediate intervention—oxygen,
assessment, possible respiratory failure. The other patients have stable, non-life-threatening
needs that can wait. ATI prioritization hierarchy: Life-threatening > Safety > Pain/Comfort.
[CORRECT]
,2
Q3 (Traditional): A nurse is supervising a newly hired LPN/LVN. Which observation requires
immediate intervention by the supervising RN?
A. The LPN documents vital signs in the electronic health record
B. The LPN administers an intramuscular injection to a patient
C. The LPN inserts a urinary catheter into a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury
D. The LPN assists with data collection by taking a patient's health history
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: LPN/LVN scope varies by state but generally excludes complex assessments and
procedures requiring nursing judgment. Inserting catheters in patients with suspected spinal
injuries (risk of autonomic dysreflexia, complex assessment needs) requires RN-level assessment
and intervention. The RN must intervene immediately. Vital signs (A), IM injections (B), and
data collection assistance (D) are typically within LPN scope. [CORRECT]
Q4 (Traditional): Which action by the nurse demonstrates appropriate advocacy for a patient?
A. Following the physician's orders without question to maintain team harmony
B. Informing a patient that their insurance will not cover a needed procedure and leaving the
decision to them
C. Questioning a medication order that appears inappropriate for the patient's condition and
contacting the prescriber for clarification
D. Avoiding documentation of a patient complaint to prevent conflict with administration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patient advocacy requires acting in the patient's best interest, including questioning
potentially harmful orders, ensuring informed consent, and protecting patient rights. Option C
demonstrates the nurse's responsibility to verify orders and prevent errors (ATI ethical
principles). Blind obedience (A), abandonment of support (B), and concealment (D) violate
advocacy, patient rights, and professional standards. [CORRECT]
Q5 (Traditional): A patient is brought to the emergency department unconscious after a motor
vehicle accident. The patient's spouse is not present, and no advance directive is available. Who
has the legal authority to make medical decisions for this patient?
A. The attending physician
B. The charge nurse
C. The closest available family member or next of kin per state law
D. The hospital administrator
,3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When patients lack decision-making capacity and no advance directive exists,
healthcare decisions default to the next of kin or closest family member per state surrogate
decision-making laws (spouse, adult children, parents, siblings in order). Physicians (A) provide
treatment recommendations but cannot make non-emergency decisions without authorization.
Nurses (B) and administrators (D) have no legal authority for patient decisions. [CORRECT]
Q6 (Traditional): A nurse discovers that a colleague has documented administering a
medication that was not actually given. What is the nurse's legal and ethical obligation?
A. Ignore the incident to protect the colleague's employment
B. Confront the colleague privately and accept their explanation without further action
C. Report the incident to the nurse manager or appropriate authority per facility policy and state
mandatory reporting requirements
D. Document the medication as given to maintain consistency with the colleague's
documentation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Falsification of medical records is fraud, patient endangerment, and professional
misconduct requiring mandatory reporting. The observing nurse must report per chain of
command, facility policy, and state mandatory reporting laws for patient safety and professional
accountability. Concealment (A, B) and falsification (D) make the observing nurse complicit and
liable. [CORRECT]
Q7 (Traditional): Which patient assignment demonstrates appropriate nurse-to-patient matching
based on acuity and competency?
A. Assigning a float nurse from pediatrics to manage four patients with ventilators and multiple
drips on a step-down unit
B. Assigning a new graduate nurse to a patient requiring complex wound VAC dressing changes
without supervision
C. Assigning an experienced ICU nurse to a patient with hemodynamic instability requiring
frequent titration of vasoactive medications
D. Assigning an LPN to perform the initial assessment on a patient with chest pain of unknown
origin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assignment matching requires aligning patient acuity with nurse competency. An
experienced ICU nurse has the skills for hemodynamic monitoring and vasoactive titration. Float
nurses without relevant experience (A) and new graduates without supervision (B) create unsafe
, 4
assignments. LPNs (D) typically cannot perform initial comprehensive assessments, particularly
for high-acuity presentations. [CORRECT]
Q8 (Traditional): A nurse is implementing a quality improvement project to reduce hospital-
acquired infections. Which activity demonstrates appropriate use of evidence-based practice?
A. Continuing current practices because "we've always done it this way"
B. Reviewing current research on infection prevention, comparing outcomes with current
practice, and implementing changes supported by evidence
C. Implementing a new practice suggested by a pharmaceutical representative without literature
review
D. Copying practices from a competing hospital without considering patient population
differences
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evidence-based practice (EBP) integrates best current research evidence, clinical
expertise, and patient values. The nurse should: ask clinical questions, acquire evidence, appraise
quality, apply to practice, and assess outcomes (ATI EBP model). Tradition (A), marketing
influence (C), and unexamined adoption (D) violate EBP principles. [CORRECT]
Q9 (Traditional): Which scenario represents a violation of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability
and Accountability Act) regulations?
A. A nurse discusses a patient's condition with the patient's spouse who is listed in the medical
record as authorized to receive information
B. A nurse shares patient information with the interdisciplinary care team involved in the
patient's treatment
C. A nurse looks up a celebrity's medical record out of curiosity despite having no treatment
relationship with the patient
D. A nurse provides patient information to a quality improvement committee reviewing care
processes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIPAA requires minimum necessary access for treatment, payment, or healthcare
operations. Accessing records without treatment need (curiosity) is unauthorized access—a
privacy violation with civil and criminal penalties. Spousal discussion with authorization (A),
care team communication (B), and quality improvement (D) are permitted disclosures.
[CORRECT]
