, TESTBANK FOR
Huether and McCance's Understanding Pathophysiology 2nd Edition Kelly
Power-Kean
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
Purchase Guarantee
If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
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,Chapter 01: Cellular Biology
Power-Kean et al: Huether and McCance’s Understanding Pathophysiology, Second
Canadian Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. The student notices it to have supercoiled
DNA with histones. What else would the student be expected to observe?
a. A single circular chromosome
b. A nucleus
c. Free-floating nuclear material
d. No organelles
ANS: B
The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its
nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A prokaryotic cell contains a single circular
chromosome and lacks organelles.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Nucleus TOP: Physiological Integrity
2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse
describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
a. Metabolic absorption
b. Communication
c. Secretion
d. Respiration
ANS: D
The cell’s ability to produce energy is respiration. Communication involves maintenance of a
steady dynamic state, while metabolic absorption provides cellular nutrition, and secretion
allows for the delivery or release of new substances.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Functions
TOP: Physiological Integrity
3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of
the genetic information be contained?
a. Peroxisomes
b. Ribosomes
c. The nucleolus
d. Suspended in nucleoplasm
ANS: D
The region of the cell that contains genetic material, is the nucleoplasm contained within the
nucleus. The nucleolus, contained within the nucleus, is largely composed of ribosomes.
Peroxisomes contain digestive enzymes.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Nucleus TOP: Physiological Integrity
,4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the
layer itself?
a. Peripheral membrane proteins
b. Integral membrane proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Cell adhesion molecules
ANS: B
Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral
membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the
surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoproteins act
as cell identifiers.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Composition
TOP: Physiological Integrity
5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
a. Oxygen
b. Ribosomes
c. Amphipathic lipids
d. Ligands
ANS: D
Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Receptors
TOP: Physiological Integrity
6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the
extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?
a. Decreased fibronectin
b. Increased collagen
c. Decreased elastin
d. Increased glycoproteins
ANS: A
Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing
them to travel or metastasize.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Extracellular Matrix
TOP: Physiological Integrity
7. What type of connection allows for cellular communication?
a. Belt desmosome
b. Gap junction
c. Spot desmosome
d. Tight junction
ANS: B
Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight
junctions are associated with cellular communication.
, DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Specialized Cells Junction
TOP: Physiological Integrity
8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighbouring
alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signalling types?
a. Paracrine
b. Autocrine
c. Neurohormonal
d. Hormonal
ANS: A
Paracrine signalling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,
destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of
glucagon. None of the other options involve signalling that is associated with a local chemical
mediator like insulin.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Communication and Signal Transduction
TOP: Physiological Integrity
9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:
a. solute.
b. substrate.
c. receptor.
d. ribosome.
ANS: B
Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of
the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and
any of the remaining options.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Metabolism
TOP: Physiological Integrity
10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which their muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The
athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the problem is result of a deficiency of:
a. GTP
b. AMP
c. ATP
d. GMP
ANS: C
When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are
involved in muscle contraction.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Role of Adenosine Triphosphate
TOP: Physiological Integrity
11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
, d. Citric acid cycle
ANS: D
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is
generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Food and Production of Cellular Energy
TOP: Physiological Integrity
12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the
nurse include?
a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion
ANS: A
Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular
catabolism.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Food and Production of Cellular Energy
TOP: Physiological Integrity
13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will
facilitate the runner’s continued muscle performance?
a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part
of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative
phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Oxidative Phosphorylation
TOP: Physiological Integrity
14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute
from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student
understood the teaching?
a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport
ANS: B
, Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to
an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water
concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against
a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes?
a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP
d. Electrically charged molecules
ANS: D
Electrolytes are electrically charged molecules. They are not lipid soluble, they are not made
up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Electrolytes as Solutes
TOP: Physiological Integrity
16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic
pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:
a. diffusion rate.
b. plasma proteins.
c. hydrostatic pressure.
d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins.
ANS: B
Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. Diffusion involves
the movement of solute molecules. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel moving in
opposition to oncotic pressure. Membrane transporter proteins are involved in active transport
within a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:
a. osmolality.
b. osmolarity.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. oncotic pressure.
ANS: A
Osmolality measures the number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water, or the concentration
of molecules per weight of water, while osmolarity measures the number of milliosmoles per
litre of solution, or the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. Osmotic pressure is
the amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water.
Oncotic pressure is from plasma proteins, not body fluids.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
, REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes
into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. What mechanical force is involved with this
movement?
a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Active transport
ANS: A
Blood reaching the capillary bed has a hydrostatic pressure of 25–30 mm Hg, which is
sufficient force to push water across the thin capillary membranes into the interstitial space.
Osmosis involves the movement of fluid from an area of higher concentration to an area of
lower concentration. It does not involve pressure or force. Diffusion is the passive movement
of a solute from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute
concentration. Active transport involves movement up a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?
a. By passive electrolyte channels
b. By coupled channels
c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. By diffusion
ANS: C
The transporter protein ATPase is directly related to sodium and potassium transport via active
transport. Electrolyte movements require energy and do not move passively, nor are they
transported by diffusion. Enzymes, not electrolytes, are passed via coupled channels.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Transport: Cellular Intake and Output
TOP: Physiological Integrity
20. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an
example of which of the following types of transport?
a. Biport
b. Uniport
c. Antiport
d. Symport
ANS: D
When ions are transported in one direction, it is termed symport. There is no such term as
biport. Uniport refers to the movement of a single molecule. Antiport refers to the movement
of molecules in the opposite direction.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Transport: Cellular Intake and Output
TOP: Physiological Integrity
21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?
a. Endocytosis
, b. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Exocytosis
ANS: C
Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through
the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate
movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute
molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when
coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Endocytosis and Exocytosis
TOP: Physiological Integrity
22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions
occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?
a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2
ANS: C
The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the
period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of
DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Reproduction: The Cell Cycle
TOP: Physiological Integrity
23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action
potential?
a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
ANS: B
When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation.
The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to
reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the
action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The
action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Movement of Electrical Impulses: Membrane Potentials TOP: Physiological Integrity
24. What event occurs to return a cell to its resting membrane potential?
a. K+ rushes into the cell.
, b. Na+ rushes into the cell.
c. Na+-K+ pumps move Na+ and K+ out of the cell.
d. Na+-K+ pumps move Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
ANS: D
In repolarization, K+ moves to the extracellular space. For a resting membrane potential to
return, Na+ is pumped to the extracellular space and K+ is pumped back to the intracellular
space.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Movement of Electrical Impulses: Membrane Potentials TOP: Physiological Integrity
25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:
a. platelets.
b. epidermal cells.
c. connective tissue cells.
d. nerve cells.
ANS: C
Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the
production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or nerve cells.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Cellular Reproduction: The Cell Cycle
TOP: Physiological Integrity
26. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are
pulled apart is referred to as:
a. anaphase.
b. telophase.
c. prophase.
d. metaphase.
ANS: A
Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During
telophase, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the
spindle fibres disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first
appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at
opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Phases of Mitosis and Cytokinesis
TOP: Physiological Integrity
27. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?
a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development.
b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle.
c. Restrain cell growth and development.
d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development.
ANS: A
Huether and McCance's Understanding Pathophysiology 2nd Edition Kelly
Power-Kean
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
Purchase Guarantee
If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
Contact Email:
,Chapter 01: Cellular Biology
Power-Kean et al: Huether and McCance’s Understanding Pathophysiology, Second
Canadian Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A student is observing a cell under the microscope. The student notices it to have supercoiled
DNA with histones. What else would the student be expected to observe?
a. A single circular chromosome
b. A nucleus
c. Free-floating nuclear material
d. No organelles
ANS: B
The cell described is a eukaryotic cell, so it has histones and a supercoiled DNA within its
nucleus; thus, the nucleus should be observed. A prokaryotic cell contains a single circular
chromosome and lacks organelles.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Nucleus TOP: Physiological Integrity
2. A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse
describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?
a. Metabolic absorption
b. Communication
c. Secretion
d. Respiration
ANS: D
The cell’s ability to produce energy is respiration. Communication involves maintenance of a
steady dynamic state, while metabolic absorption provides cellular nutrition, and secretion
allows for the delivery or release of new substances.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Functions
TOP: Physiological Integrity
3. A eukaryotic cell is undergoing DNA replication. In which region of the cell would most of
the genetic information be contained?
a. Peroxisomes
b. Ribosomes
c. The nucleolus
d. Suspended in nucleoplasm
ANS: D
The region of the cell that contains genetic material, is the nucleoplasm contained within the
nucleus. The nucleolus, contained within the nucleus, is largely composed of ribosomes.
Peroxisomes contain digestive enzymes.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Nucleus TOP: Physiological Integrity
,4. Which of the following can remove proteins attached to the cell’s bilayer by dissolving the
layer itself?
a. Peripheral membrane proteins
b. Integral membrane proteins
c. Glycoproteins
d. Cell adhesion molecules
ANS: B
Proteins directly attached to the membrane bilayer can be removed by the action of integral
membrane proteins that dissolve the bilayer. Peripheral membrane proteins reside at the
surface while cell adhesion molecules are on the outside of the membrane. Glycoproteins act
as cell identifiers.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Composition
TOP: Physiological Integrity
5. Which of the following can bind to plasma membrane receptors?
a. Oxygen
b. Ribosomes
c. Amphipathic lipids
d. Ligands
ANS: D
Ligands are the only specific molecules that can bind with receptors on the cell membrane.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Receptors
TOP: Physiological Integrity
6. A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer. What alternation in the
extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?
a. Decreased fibronectin
b. Increased collagen
c. Decreased elastin
d. Increased glycoproteins
ANS: A
Only a reduced amount of fibronectin is found in some types of cancerous cells, allowing
them to travel or metastasize.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Extracellular Matrix
TOP: Physiological Integrity
7. What type of connection allows for cellular communication?
a. Belt desmosome
b. Gap junction
c. Spot desmosome
d. Tight junction
ANS: B
Gap junctions allow for cellular communication between cells. Neither desmosomes nor tight
junctions are associated with cellular communication.
, DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Specialized Cells Junction
TOP: Physiological Integrity
8. Pancreatic beta cells secrete insulin, which inhibits secretion of glucagon from neighbouring
alpha cells. This action is an example of which of the following signalling types?
a. Paracrine
b. Autocrine
c. Neurohormonal
d. Hormonal
ANS: A
Paracrine signalling involves the release of local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up,
destroyed, or immobilized, as in the case of insulin and the inhibition of the secretion of
glucagon. None of the other options involve signalling that is associated with a local chemical
mediator like insulin.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Communication and Signal Transduction
TOP: Physiological Integrity
9. In cellular metabolism, each enzyme has a high affinity for a:
a. solute.
b. substrate.
c. receptor.
d. ribosome.
ANS: B
Each enzyme has a high affinity for a substrate, a specific substance converted to a product of
the reaction. Cellular metabolism is not dependent on an attraction between an enzyme and
any of the remaining options.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Metabolism
TOP: Physiological Integrity
10. An athlete runs a marathon, after which their muscles feel fatigued and unable to contract. The
athlete asks the nurse why this happened. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the problem is result of a deficiency of:
a. GTP
b. AMP
c. ATP
d. GMP
ANS: C
When ATP is deficient, impaired muscle contraction results. None of the other options are
involved in muscle contraction.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Role of Adenosine Triphosphate
TOP: Physiological Integrity
11. Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
a. Digestion
b. Glycolysis
c. Oxidation
, d. Citric acid cycle
ANS: D
While some ATP is produced during the oxidation and glycolysis phases, most of the ATP is
generated during the citric acid cycle. Digestion does not produce any ATP.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Food and Production of Cellular Energy
TOP: Physiological Integrity
12. A nurse is teaching the staff about the phases of cellular catabolism. Which phases should the
nurse include?
a. Digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle
b. Diffusion, osmosis, and mediated transport
c. S phase, G phase, and M phase
d. Metabolic absorption, respiration, and excretion
ANS: A
Only digestion, glycolysis, oxidation, and the citric acid cycle are the phases of cellular
catabolism.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Food and Production of Cellular Energy
TOP: Physiological Integrity
13. A runner has depleted all the oxygen available for muscle energy. Which of the following will
facilitate the runner’s continued muscle performance?
a. Electron-transport chain
b. Aerobic glycolysis
c. Anaerobic glycolysis
d. Oxidative phosphorylation
ANS: C
When no oxygen is available, anaerobic glycolysis occurs. The electron-transport chain is part
of the citric acid cycle. Aerobic glycolysis involves the presence of oxygen. Oxidative
phosphorylation is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats,
and proteins is transferred to ATP. It is not part of muscle performance.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Oxidative Phosphorylation
TOP: Physiological Integrity
14. A faculty member asks a student to identify the appropriate term for the movement of a solute
from an area of greater to lesser concentration. Which answer indicates the nursing student
understood the teaching?
a. Osmosis
b. Diffusion
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Active transport
ANS: B
, Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to
an area of lesser solute concentration through a permeable membrane. Osmosis is the
movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of higher water
concentration to one of lower concentration. Hydrostatic pressure is the force of fluid against
a cell membrane. In active transport, molecules move up a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
15. Which description accurately describes electrolytes?
a. Small lipid-soluble molecules
b. Large protein molecules
c. Micronutrients used to produce ATP
d. Electrically charged molecules
ANS: D
Electrolytes are electrically charged molecules. They are not lipid soluble, they are not made
up of protein, and they do not play a role in ATP production.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Electrolytes as Solutes
TOP: Physiological Integrity
16. A nurse is reading a chart and sees the term oncotic pressure. The nurse recalls that oncotic
pressure (colloid osmotic pressure) is determined by:
a. diffusion rate.
b. plasma proteins.
c. hydrostatic pressure.
d. the availability of membrane transporter proteins.
ANS: B
Oncotic pressure is determined by the effect of colloids or plasma proteins. Diffusion involves
the movement of solute molecules. Hydrostatic pressure is the force within a vessel moving in
opposition to oncotic pressure. Membrane transporter proteins are involved in active transport
within a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
17. A patient has a body fluid of 300 mOsm/kg. This lab result is measuring:
a. osmolality.
b. osmolarity.
c. osmotic pressure.
d. oncotic pressure.
ANS: A
Osmolality measures the number of milliosmoles per kilogram of water, or the concentration
of molecules per weight of water, while osmolarity measures the number of milliosmoles per
litre of solution, or the concentration of molecules per volume of solution. Osmotic pressure is
the amount of hydrostatic pressure required to oppose the osmotic movement of water.
Oncotic pressure is from plasma proteins, not body fluids.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
, REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
18. A nurse is discussing the movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes
into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary. What mechanical force is involved with this
movement?
a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Active transport
ANS: A
Blood reaching the capillary bed has a hydrostatic pressure of 25–30 mm Hg, which is
sufficient force to push water across the thin capillary membranes into the interstitial space.
Osmosis involves the movement of fluid from an area of higher concentration to an area of
lower concentration. It does not involve pressure or force. Diffusion is the passive movement
of a solute from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute
concentration. Active transport involves movement up a concentration gradient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Passive Transport: Diffusion, Filtration, and Osmosis TOP: Physiological Integrity
19. How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?
a. By passive electrolyte channels
b. By coupled channels
c. By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
d. By diffusion
ANS: C
The transporter protein ATPase is directly related to sodium and potassium transport via active
transport. Electrolyte movements require energy and do not move passively, nor are they
transported by diffusion. Enzymes, not electrolytes, are passed via coupled channels.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Transport: Cellular Intake and Output
TOP: Physiological Integrity
20. The ion transporter that moves Na+ and Ca2+ simultaneously in the same direction is an
example of which of the following types of transport?
a. Biport
b. Uniport
c. Antiport
d. Symport
ANS: D
When ions are transported in one direction, it is termed symport. There is no such term as
biport. Uniport refers to the movement of a single molecule. Antiport refers to the movement
of molecules in the opposite direction.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Membrane Transport: Cellular Intake and Output
TOP: Physiological Integrity
21. During which process are bacteria engulfed for ingestion?
a. Endocytosis
, b. Pinocytosis
c. Phagocytosis
d. Exocytosis
ANS: C
Phagocytosis (cell eating) involves the ingestion of large particles, such as bacteria, through
the formation of large vesicles. Endocytosis involves the formation of vesicles to facilitate
movement into the cell. Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which fluids and solute
molecules are ingested through the formation of small vesicles. Exocytosis occurs when
coated pits invaginate and internalize ligand-receptor complexes in coated vesicles.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Endocytosis and Exocytosis
TOP: Physiological Integrity
22. Some cancer drugs work during the cell cycle phase where nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions
occur. What is this cell cycle phase called?
a. G1
b. S
c. M
d. G2
ANS: C
The M phase includes both nuclear and cytoplasmic divisions. The G1 phase includes the
period between the M phase and the start of DNA synthesis. The S phase includes synthesis of
DNA in the cell nucleus. The G2 phase includes RNA and protein synthesis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Cellular Reproduction: The Cell Cycle
TOP: Physiological Integrity
23. Which causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential that initiates an action
potential?
a. Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane
potential from negative to positive.
c. Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
d. Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane
potential from positive to negative.
ANS: B
When the threshold is reached, the cell will continue to depolarize with no further stimulation.
The sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, causing the membrane potential to
reduce to zero and then become positive (depolarization). Sodium is involved in creating the
action potential, not potassium. The sodium gate and channel must be open, not closed. The
action potential is not affected by a change in the potassium gate.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Movement of Electrical Impulses: Membrane Potentials TOP: Physiological Integrity
24. What event occurs to return a cell to its resting membrane potential?
a. K+ rushes into the cell.
, b. Na+ rushes into the cell.
c. Na+-K+ pumps move Na+ and K+ out of the cell.
d. Na+-K+ pumps move Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell.
ANS: D
In repolarization, K+ moves to the extracellular space. For a resting membrane potential to
return, Na+ is pumped to the extracellular space and K+ is pumped back to the intracellular
space.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember
REF: Movement of Electrical Impulses: Membrane Potentials TOP: Physiological Integrity
25. A nurse teaching the staff about platelet-derived growth factor includes information that
platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) stimulates the production of:
a. platelets.
b. epidermal cells.
c. connective tissue cells.
d. nerve cells.
ANS: C
Different types of cells require different growth factors; for example, PDGF stimulates the
production of connective tissue cells, but not platelets, epidermal cells, or nerve cells.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: Cellular Reproduction: The Cell Cycle
TOP: Physiological Integrity
26. The phase of the cell cycle during which the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are
pulled apart is referred to as:
a. anaphase.
b. telophase.
c. prophase.
d. metaphase.
ANS: A
Anaphase begins when the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled apart. During
telophase, a new nuclear membrane is formed around each group of 46 chromosomes, the
spindle fibres disappear, and the chromosomes begin to uncoil. During prophase, the first
appearance of chromosomes occurs. Metaphase occurs when two centrioles located at
opposite poles of the cell pull the chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Remember REF: Phases of Mitosis and Cytokinesis
TOP: Physiological Integrity
27. What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?
a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development.
b. Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle.
c. Restrain cell growth and development.
d. Provide nutrients for cell growth and development.
ANS: A
