, TESTBANK FOR
Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process 16th Edition
Raymond
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
Purchase Guarantee
If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
Contact Email:
,Chapter 01: Intake: Gastrointestinal Digestion, Absorption, and Excretion of Nutrients
Raymond: Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process, 16th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with
a. enterokinase.
b. trypsinogen.
c. hydrochloric acid.
d. peptidases.
ANS: C
Pepsinogen is secreted in the stomach and converted to its active form by the acid
environment of the stomach. Enterokinase is secreted by the brush border of the small
intestine in response to the presence of chyme. Trypsinogen is secreted by the pancreas and
activated by enterokinase. Various peptidases are secreted by the either brush border or the
pancreas.
2. Which of the following is formed by bacterial synthesis in the colon?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B6
d. Niacin
ANS: A
Colonic bacteria produce vitamin K, vitamin B12, thiamin, and riboflavin. Vitamin D may be
metabolized by exposure of precursor vitamin D in the skin to ultraviolet light. The human
body can synthesize niacin from the amino acid tryptophan. Vitamin B6 must be obtained from
dietary sources such as meats, whole grains, vegetables, and nuts.
3. After surgical removal of a large portion of the small intestine, what functional complication
is most likely to develop?
a. Changes in dietary habits
b. Impaired digestion
c. Loss of absorptive tissue
d. Elimination of dietary residue
ANS: C
The small intestine is the primary site of nutrient absorption because of its large absorption
surface area. Secretions from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas can still contribute to
digestion of intestinal contents. However, decreased absorption of nutrients and food
components may result in more intestinal remains and residue. A patient may change dietary
habits as a result of gastrointestinal discomfort experienced after intestinal resection, but this
is not a functional complication.
4. The sight or smell of food produces vagal stimulation of the parietal cells of the gastric
mucosa, resulting in the increased production of what?
a. Motilin
b. Gastrin
c. Cholecystokinin
, d. Secretin
ANS: B
Parasympathetic innervation that causes secretion of gastrin and release of hydrochloric acid
helps prepare the stomach for the potential of receiving food. After food chyme is passed into
the small intestine from the stomach, secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted to stimulate
pancreatic secretion of water and bicarbonate. They also signal gallbladder contractions and
colonic motility, all resulting in reductions in stomach emptying and duodenal motility.
Motilin is secreted from the duodenal mucosa during fasting to stimulate gastric emptying and
intestinal motility.
5. If a patient experiences malabsorption of fat resulting from an impaired ability to produce
adequate bile salts for micelle formation, how may fat absorption be improved?
a. By increasing short-chain fatty acids in the diet
b. By increasing medium-chain fatty acids in the diet
c. By increasing long-chain fatty acids in the diet
d. By restricting dietary intake of cholesterol
ANS: B
Medium-chain fatty acids of 8 to 12 carbons can be absorbed directly by mucosal cells
without the presence of bile. The long-chain fatty acids require micelle formation for
absorption. Short-chain fatty acids result from bacterial fermentation of malabsorbed
carbohydrates and fibers. As bile is produced from cholesterol, dietary restriction of
cholesterol is negligible in regard to improvements in fat absorption.
6. What is the function of secretin?
a. Stimulation of gastric secretions and increased motility
b. Stimulation of gallbladder contraction and the release of bile
c. Stimulation of the pancreas to secrete water and bicarbonate
d. Stimulation of the parietal cells to secrete gastrin
ANS: C
Secretin is the hormone that works in opposition to gastrin. Whereas gastrin stimulates
stomach digestion activities, secretin decreases gastric output and promotes pancreatic
secretions to neutralize the acidity of chyme. Cholecystokinin is also secreted when chyme
enters the duodenum, and it is responsible for stimulating the gallbladder.
7. Which of the following is a list of enzymes released from the pancreas?
a. Insulin, trypsin, and secretin
b. Lactase, isomaltase, and dextrinase
c. Protease, pepsin, and gastrin
d. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase
ANS: D
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase are three protein digestive enzymes secreted by
the pancreas. Insulin is an endogenous hormone secreted by the pancreas. Secretin is a
hormone secreted by the small intestine. Lactase and isomaltase (also known as dextrinase)
are brush-border enzymes. Pepsin, which is a protease, and gastrin are hormones secreted by
the stomach.
8. In what form is dietary fat absorbed from the lumen of the intestine?
, a. Chylomicron
b. Micelle
c. Triglyceride
d. Lipoprotein
ANS: B
Fats must be emulsified into micelles so that they may cross the unstirred water layer that
borders the brush-border membranes. These micelles leave monoglycerides and fatty acids at
the brush border, where they are reabsorbed and reassembled as triglycerides. The
triglycerides are packaged with cholesterol, fat-soluble vitamins, and phospholipids into
chylomicrons, which pass into the lymphatic circulation. When these reach the liver, the
chylomicron components are repackaged into low-density lipoproteins.
9. Which of the following is true of probiotics?
a. Probiotics are live microorganisms found in food.
b. Probiotics are nondigestible carbohydrates.
c. Probiotics act primarily on bacteria in the proximal small intestine.
d. Probiotics cannot be given as supplements because they readily die.
ANS: A
Probiotics are live microorganisms, which when administered in adequate amounts confer a
health benefit on the host. They are found in fermented foods like yogurt and sauerkraut or as
a nutritional supplement. Bacterial action is most intense in the distal small intestine and large
intestine.
10. By which transport mechanism are most vitamins absorbed from the small intestine into the
blood?
a. Passive diffusion
b. Active diffusion
c. Facilitative diffusion
d. Passive osmosis
ANS: A
Passive diffusion is limited by the number of channels available for nutrients to randomly pass
through. Facilitated diffusion requires the presence of carrier proteins, which may be limited
by the health and nutritional status of the person. Active transport requires energy, which also
may be limited by the person’s health and nutritional status. Osmosis occurs in regard to
concentration gradient and only involves the movement of water, not vitamins.
11. What are primarily absorbed by the large intestine?
a. Water and fats
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Water and electrolytes
ANS: D
Water and electrolytes are usually the only absorbable remnants of dietary intake that reach
the large intestine. Fats, carbohydrates, and proteins from the diet are absorbed throughout the
small intestine.
12. What happens to cellulose and lignin as they go through the GI tract?
, a. They are converted into glucose before absorption.
b. They are converted into glucose and absorbed by active transport.
c. They are excreted in the feces unchanged.
d. They are excreted in the feces as glucose.
ANS: C
In humans, the secreted amylases cannot split the 1-2 and 1-4 linkages between the
saccharides within the cellulose molecule. As a result, no individual glucose molecules are
broken off.
13. Which is the process by which minerals are absorbed when they are bound to an acid, organic
acid, or amino acid?
a. Cotransportation
b. Carrier protein
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Chelation
ANS: D
Chelation refers to the binding of a cation mineral to a ligand, not a whole protein.
Cotransporters carry two different minerals at a time, such as the case with sodium and
phosphorus. An overlap of mineral transport mechanisms may lead to competitive absorption
between minerals in the presence of other minerals, such as the case with iron or zinc
supplementation, leading to a decrease in copper absorption.
14. How often do the cells lining the intestinal tract recycle?
a. Every 2 to 3 days
b. Every 3 to 5 days
c. Every 5 to 7 days
d. Every 10 to 14 days
ANS: B
Intestinal mucosal cells have a life span of 3 to 5 days before they are sloughed off and
recycled. They are fully functional only for the last 2 to 3 days as they migrate to the distal
third of the villi.
15. What effect may be achieved by eating a diet high in prebiotic carbohydrates?
a. Decreased SCFA production in the bowel
b. Increased growth of Lactobacillus spp.
c. Decreased absorption of bile salts
d. Increased absorption of cation minerals
ANS: B
The use of prebiotic carbohydrates favors the growth of friendly bacteria such as lactobacilli
and bifidobacteria. These bacteria ferment the prebiotic carbohydrates, promoting increased
short-chain fatty acid production. These types of carbohydrates have not been demonstrated to
have a bile-sequestering effect. Impairments in absorption of cation minerals tend to be in
relation to phytates and oxalates that are present in plant foods.
16. How long does it take for small intestine contents to reach the ileocecal valve?
a. 18 to 72 hours
b. 3 to 8 hours
,c. 1 to 2 hours
d. 2 to 3 hours
ANS: B
Travel of contents through the small intestine takes 3 to 8 hours. A liquid meal empties from
the stomach within 1 to 2 hours of eating. A solid meal takes 2 to 3 hours. Total transport from
mouth to anus takes 18 to 72 hours on average.
,Chapter 02: Intake: Energy
Raymond: Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process, 16th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A particular food provides 100 kcal. How many kJ does this equal?
a. 420
b. 480
c. 4200
d. 4800
ANS: A
One kilocalorie is equal to 4.184 kJ (100 kcal 4.2 kJ/kcal = 420 kJ).
2. Which of the following conditions is necessary to obtain an accurate measure of a patient’s
basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
a. Test at the end of the day when the patient is ready to go to sleep.
b. Test 2 to 3 hours after the last meal.
c. Test in the morning after the patient has awakened.
d. Test in environmental conditions equal to body temperature.
ANS: C
For an accurate measurement of BMR, the test should be performed when the body is using its
minimum amount of energy, usually in the morning after waking, and at least 10 to 12 hours
after the last meal so as to not include the thermic effect of food. Climates above 86F
increase metabolism because of sweat gland activity.
3. If a patient’s body temperature were 104.6°F, what would the BMR be compared with
normal?
a. 58% of normal
b. 135% of normal
c. 142% of normal
d. 178% of normal
ANS: C
An increase in body temperature increases the BMR by 7% for every degree Fahrenheit above
the normal 98.6°F (104.6 – 98.6 = 6°F; 6°F 7% ÷ 1°F = 42%).
4. How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate?
a. It does not change the metabolic rate.
b. It increases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
c. It increases the metabolic rate by 14% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
d. It decreases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
ANS: B
Fever causes an increase in body temperature. For every degree Fahrenheit above the normal
98.6°F, the BMR increases by 7%.
5. Which of the following does not increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
a. Carbohydrates
, b. Fat
c. Regular eating schedule
d. Spicy foods
ANS: B
Although dietary fat provides the highest concentration of energy, metabolism of fat is highly
efficient, with only 4% of calories wasted. This partly explains the obesogenic aspect of
dietary fat. The TEF after intake of carbohydrates and proteins tends to be higher than after fat
intake. Following a regular eating schedule results in a higher TEF than irregular eating. The
use of spice and mustard increases metabolism more than unspiced meals.
6. What is the clinical method for measuring human energy expenditure?
a. Bomb calorimetry
b. Indirect calorimetry
c. Doubly labeled water
d. Direct calorimetry
ANS: B
Indirect calorimetry is commonly used in hospital settings. The piece of equipment is known
as a metabolic cart or monitor. Other methods of measuring energy expenditure include
doubly labeled water and direct calorimetry; however, these are not practical for clinical
practice. Bomb calorimetry measures the energy available from food.
7. When is basal metabolism at its highest rate?
a. During the digestion of a meal
b. During periods of sleep
c. During periods of exercise
d. During periods of rapid growth
ANS: D
Because basal metabolism only accounts for the proportion of energy necessary for support of
life functions, it does not include energy increase after eating (TEF) or during exercise (AT).
During infancy, childhood, adolescence, and pregnancy, basal metabolism increases as FFM
increases.
8. Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy
expenditure?
a. It accounts for 10% of total energy expenditure.
b. Its contribution to total energy expenditure increases with age.
c. Its contribution to total energy expenditure is most consistent during childhood.
d. It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
ANS: D
Activity thermogenesis is highly variable and dependent on body size and the efficiency of
individual habits of motion. Whereas the thermic effect of food tends to be about 10% of TEE,
AT can range from 100 kcal/day in sedentary people to 3000 kcal/day in highly active people.
AT tends to decrease with age, and it tends to be variable during childhood.
9. What does indirect calorimetry measure?
a. The amount of heat produced by the body at rest
b. The energy potential of foods consumed
, c. Oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide excretion
d. The resting metabolic rate
ANS: C
Indirect calorimetry measures gas exchange that results from metabolism. The oxygen
consumption and carbon dioxide excretion can be used to estimate a resting metabolic rate.
Direct calorimetry measures heat production, either from humans in a controlled environment,
or from food, by incinerating the food and measuring the amount of heat released.
10. The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily
composed of what?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Mixed macronutrients
ANS: A
The RQ compares the carbon dioxide produced with the oxygen consumed when energy
substrates are metabolized. The RQ for carbohydrate is 1. The RQs for protein, fat, and a
mixed diet are, respectively, 0.82, 0.7, and 0.85.
11. Studies have shown that which factor(s) is(are) the primary determinant of an individual’s
resting energy expenditure (RMR)?
a. The amount of lean body mass
b. The amount of adipose tissue
c. A person’s age, gender, and health status
d. The individual’s body weight
ANS: A
The lean body mass, or fat-free mass, accounts for about 80% of the variance in RMR.
Although the body weight and composition are affected by a person’s age, gender, and health
status, the amount of metabolically active tissue that exists within the overall lean body mass
contributes to the overall metabolic rate.
12. Which of these best describes the change in the metabolic rate during pregnancy?
a. It decreases as a result of a decrease in maternal physical activity.
b. It increases as a result of fetal growth.
c. It increases as a result of fetal growth and maternal cardiac output.
d. It decreases as a result of an increase in maternal adipose tissue.
ANS: C
Hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy support the changes in the maternal body to
support the growth of the fetus. These changes include the growth of metabolically active
tissue in the uterus, placenta, and fetus. Additionally, blood volume is increased, and cardiac
workload increases. Because the metabolic rate is dependent on metabolically active tissues,
as these increase and the heart’s work increases, the overall metabolic rate increases.
13. A dish has 60 g of carbohydrate, 35 g of protein, and 25 g of fat. How many total kilocalories
are in the dish?
a. 480 kcal
b. 555 kcal
Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process 16th Edition
Raymond
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
Purchase Guarantee
If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
Contact Email:
,Chapter 01: Intake: Gastrointestinal Digestion, Absorption, and Excretion of Nutrients
Raymond: Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process, 16th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin when it comes in contact with
a. enterokinase.
b. trypsinogen.
c. hydrochloric acid.
d. peptidases.
ANS: C
Pepsinogen is secreted in the stomach and converted to its active form by the acid
environment of the stomach. Enterokinase is secreted by the brush border of the small
intestine in response to the presence of chyme. Trypsinogen is secreted by the pancreas and
activated by enterokinase. Various peptidases are secreted by the either brush border or the
pancreas.
2. Which of the following is formed by bacterial synthesis in the colon?
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin B6
d. Niacin
ANS: A
Colonic bacteria produce vitamin K, vitamin B12, thiamin, and riboflavin. Vitamin D may be
metabolized by exposure of precursor vitamin D in the skin to ultraviolet light. The human
body can synthesize niacin from the amino acid tryptophan. Vitamin B6 must be obtained from
dietary sources such as meats, whole grains, vegetables, and nuts.
3. After surgical removal of a large portion of the small intestine, what functional complication
is most likely to develop?
a. Changes in dietary habits
b. Impaired digestion
c. Loss of absorptive tissue
d. Elimination of dietary residue
ANS: C
The small intestine is the primary site of nutrient absorption because of its large absorption
surface area. Secretions from the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas can still contribute to
digestion of intestinal contents. However, decreased absorption of nutrients and food
components may result in more intestinal remains and residue. A patient may change dietary
habits as a result of gastrointestinal discomfort experienced after intestinal resection, but this
is not a functional complication.
4. The sight or smell of food produces vagal stimulation of the parietal cells of the gastric
mucosa, resulting in the increased production of what?
a. Motilin
b. Gastrin
c. Cholecystokinin
, d. Secretin
ANS: B
Parasympathetic innervation that causes secretion of gastrin and release of hydrochloric acid
helps prepare the stomach for the potential of receiving food. After food chyme is passed into
the small intestine from the stomach, secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted to stimulate
pancreatic secretion of water and bicarbonate. They also signal gallbladder contractions and
colonic motility, all resulting in reductions in stomach emptying and duodenal motility.
Motilin is secreted from the duodenal mucosa during fasting to stimulate gastric emptying and
intestinal motility.
5. If a patient experiences malabsorption of fat resulting from an impaired ability to produce
adequate bile salts for micelle formation, how may fat absorption be improved?
a. By increasing short-chain fatty acids in the diet
b. By increasing medium-chain fatty acids in the diet
c. By increasing long-chain fatty acids in the diet
d. By restricting dietary intake of cholesterol
ANS: B
Medium-chain fatty acids of 8 to 12 carbons can be absorbed directly by mucosal cells
without the presence of bile. The long-chain fatty acids require micelle formation for
absorption. Short-chain fatty acids result from bacterial fermentation of malabsorbed
carbohydrates and fibers. As bile is produced from cholesterol, dietary restriction of
cholesterol is negligible in regard to improvements in fat absorption.
6. What is the function of secretin?
a. Stimulation of gastric secretions and increased motility
b. Stimulation of gallbladder contraction and the release of bile
c. Stimulation of the pancreas to secrete water and bicarbonate
d. Stimulation of the parietal cells to secrete gastrin
ANS: C
Secretin is the hormone that works in opposition to gastrin. Whereas gastrin stimulates
stomach digestion activities, secretin decreases gastric output and promotes pancreatic
secretions to neutralize the acidity of chyme. Cholecystokinin is also secreted when chyme
enters the duodenum, and it is responsible for stimulating the gallbladder.
7. Which of the following is a list of enzymes released from the pancreas?
a. Insulin, trypsin, and secretin
b. Lactase, isomaltase, and dextrinase
c. Protease, pepsin, and gastrin
d. Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase
ANS: D
Trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase are three protein digestive enzymes secreted by
the pancreas. Insulin is an endogenous hormone secreted by the pancreas. Secretin is a
hormone secreted by the small intestine. Lactase and isomaltase (also known as dextrinase)
are brush-border enzymes. Pepsin, which is a protease, and gastrin are hormones secreted by
the stomach.
8. In what form is dietary fat absorbed from the lumen of the intestine?
, a. Chylomicron
b. Micelle
c. Triglyceride
d. Lipoprotein
ANS: B
Fats must be emulsified into micelles so that they may cross the unstirred water layer that
borders the brush-border membranes. These micelles leave monoglycerides and fatty acids at
the brush border, where they are reabsorbed and reassembled as triglycerides. The
triglycerides are packaged with cholesterol, fat-soluble vitamins, and phospholipids into
chylomicrons, which pass into the lymphatic circulation. When these reach the liver, the
chylomicron components are repackaged into low-density lipoproteins.
9. Which of the following is true of probiotics?
a. Probiotics are live microorganisms found in food.
b. Probiotics are nondigestible carbohydrates.
c. Probiotics act primarily on bacteria in the proximal small intestine.
d. Probiotics cannot be given as supplements because they readily die.
ANS: A
Probiotics are live microorganisms, which when administered in adequate amounts confer a
health benefit on the host. They are found in fermented foods like yogurt and sauerkraut or as
a nutritional supplement. Bacterial action is most intense in the distal small intestine and large
intestine.
10. By which transport mechanism are most vitamins absorbed from the small intestine into the
blood?
a. Passive diffusion
b. Active diffusion
c. Facilitative diffusion
d. Passive osmosis
ANS: A
Passive diffusion is limited by the number of channels available for nutrients to randomly pass
through. Facilitated diffusion requires the presence of carrier proteins, which may be limited
by the health and nutritional status of the person. Active transport requires energy, which also
may be limited by the person’s health and nutritional status. Osmosis occurs in regard to
concentration gradient and only involves the movement of water, not vitamins.
11. What are primarily absorbed by the large intestine?
a. Water and fats
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Water and electrolytes
ANS: D
Water and electrolytes are usually the only absorbable remnants of dietary intake that reach
the large intestine. Fats, carbohydrates, and proteins from the diet are absorbed throughout the
small intestine.
12. What happens to cellulose and lignin as they go through the GI tract?
, a. They are converted into glucose before absorption.
b. They are converted into glucose and absorbed by active transport.
c. They are excreted in the feces unchanged.
d. They are excreted in the feces as glucose.
ANS: C
In humans, the secreted amylases cannot split the 1-2 and 1-4 linkages between the
saccharides within the cellulose molecule. As a result, no individual glucose molecules are
broken off.
13. Which is the process by which minerals are absorbed when they are bound to an acid, organic
acid, or amino acid?
a. Cotransportation
b. Carrier protein
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Chelation
ANS: D
Chelation refers to the binding of a cation mineral to a ligand, not a whole protein.
Cotransporters carry two different minerals at a time, such as the case with sodium and
phosphorus. An overlap of mineral transport mechanisms may lead to competitive absorption
between minerals in the presence of other minerals, such as the case with iron or zinc
supplementation, leading to a decrease in copper absorption.
14. How often do the cells lining the intestinal tract recycle?
a. Every 2 to 3 days
b. Every 3 to 5 days
c. Every 5 to 7 days
d. Every 10 to 14 days
ANS: B
Intestinal mucosal cells have a life span of 3 to 5 days before they are sloughed off and
recycled. They are fully functional only for the last 2 to 3 days as they migrate to the distal
third of the villi.
15. What effect may be achieved by eating a diet high in prebiotic carbohydrates?
a. Decreased SCFA production in the bowel
b. Increased growth of Lactobacillus spp.
c. Decreased absorption of bile salts
d. Increased absorption of cation minerals
ANS: B
The use of prebiotic carbohydrates favors the growth of friendly bacteria such as lactobacilli
and bifidobacteria. These bacteria ferment the prebiotic carbohydrates, promoting increased
short-chain fatty acid production. These types of carbohydrates have not been demonstrated to
have a bile-sequestering effect. Impairments in absorption of cation minerals tend to be in
relation to phytates and oxalates that are present in plant foods.
16. How long does it take for small intestine contents to reach the ileocecal valve?
a. 18 to 72 hours
b. 3 to 8 hours
,c. 1 to 2 hours
d. 2 to 3 hours
ANS: B
Travel of contents through the small intestine takes 3 to 8 hours. A liquid meal empties from
the stomach within 1 to 2 hours of eating. A solid meal takes 2 to 3 hours. Total transport from
mouth to anus takes 18 to 72 hours on average.
,Chapter 02: Intake: Energy
Raymond: Krause and Mahan’s Food and the Nutrition Care Process, 16th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A particular food provides 100 kcal. How many kJ does this equal?
a. 420
b. 480
c. 4200
d. 4800
ANS: A
One kilocalorie is equal to 4.184 kJ (100 kcal 4.2 kJ/kcal = 420 kJ).
2. Which of the following conditions is necessary to obtain an accurate measure of a patient’s
basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
a. Test at the end of the day when the patient is ready to go to sleep.
b. Test 2 to 3 hours after the last meal.
c. Test in the morning after the patient has awakened.
d. Test in environmental conditions equal to body temperature.
ANS: C
For an accurate measurement of BMR, the test should be performed when the body is using its
minimum amount of energy, usually in the morning after waking, and at least 10 to 12 hours
after the last meal so as to not include the thermic effect of food. Climates above 86F
increase metabolism because of sweat gland activity.
3. If a patient’s body temperature were 104.6°F, what would the BMR be compared with
normal?
a. 58% of normal
b. 135% of normal
c. 142% of normal
d. 178% of normal
ANS: C
An increase in body temperature increases the BMR by 7% for every degree Fahrenheit above
the normal 98.6°F (104.6 – 98.6 = 6°F; 6°F 7% ÷ 1°F = 42%).
4. How does an elevation in body temperature with fever affect the metabolic rate?
a. It does not change the metabolic rate.
b. It increases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
c. It increases the metabolic rate by 14% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
d. It decreases the metabolic rate by 7% per degree Fahrenheit above normal.
ANS: B
Fever causes an increase in body temperature. For every degree Fahrenheit above the normal
98.6°F, the BMR increases by 7%.
5. Which of the following does not increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
a. Carbohydrates
, b. Fat
c. Regular eating schedule
d. Spicy foods
ANS: B
Although dietary fat provides the highest concentration of energy, metabolism of fat is highly
efficient, with only 4% of calories wasted. This partly explains the obesogenic aspect of
dietary fat. The TEF after intake of carbohydrates and proteins tends to be higher than after fat
intake. Following a regular eating schedule results in a higher TEF than irregular eating. The
use of spice and mustard increases metabolism more than unspiced meals.
6. What is the clinical method for measuring human energy expenditure?
a. Bomb calorimetry
b. Indirect calorimetry
c. Doubly labeled water
d. Direct calorimetry
ANS: B
Indirect calorimetry is commonly used in hospital settings. The piece of equipment is known
as a metabolic cart or monitor. Other methods of measuring energy expenditure include
doubly labeled water and direct calorimetry; however, these are not practical for clinical
practice. Bomb calorimetry measures the energy available from food.
7. When is basal metabolism at its highest rate?
a. During the digestion of a meal
b. During periods of sleep
c. During periods of exercise
d. During periods of rapid growth
ANS: D
Because basal metabolism only accounts for the proportion of energy necessary for support of
life functions, it does not include energy increase after eating (TEF) or during exercise (AT).
During infancy, childhood, adolescence, and pregnancy, basal metabolism increases as FFM
increases.
8. Which of the following best describes the contribution of physical activity to total energy
expenditure?
a. It accounts for 10% of total energy expenditure.
b. Its contribution to total energy expenditure increases with age.
c. Its contribution to total energy expenditure is most consistent during childhood.
d. It is the most variable component of total energy expenditure.
ANS: D
Activity thermogenesis is highly variable and dependent on body size and the efficiency of
individual habits of motion. Whereas the thermic effect of food tends to be about 10% of TEE,
AT can range from 100 kcal/day in sedentary people to 3000 kcal/day in highly active people.
AT tends to decrease with age, and it tends to be variable during childhood.
9. What does indirect calorimetry measure?
a. The amount of heat produced by the body at rest
b. The energy potential of foods consumed
, c. Oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide excretion
d. The resting metabolic rate
ANS: C
Indirect calorimetry measures gas exchange that results from metabolism. The oxygen
consumption and carbon dioxide excretion can be used to estimate a resting metabolic rate.
Direct calorimetry measures heat production, either from humans in a controlled environment,
or from food, by incinerating the food and measuring the amount of heat released.
10. The respiratory quotient (RQ) is highest after consumption of a diet that is primarily
composed of what?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Mixed macronutrients
ANS: A
The RQ compares the carbon dioxide produced with the oxygen consumed when energy
substrates are metabolized. The RQ for carbohydrate is 1. The RQs for protein, fat, and a
mixed diet are, respectively, 0.82, 0.7, and 0.85.
11. Studies have shown that which factor(s) is(are) the primary determinant of an individual’s
resting energy expenditure (RMR)?
a. The amount of lean body mass
b. The amount of adipose tissue
c. A person’s age, gender, and health status
d. The individual’s body weight
ANS: A
The lean body mass, or fat-free mass, accounts for about 80% of the variance in RMR.
Although the body weight and composition are affected by a person’s age, gender, and health
status, the amount of metabolically active tissue that exists within the overall lean body mass
contributes to the overall metabolic rate.
12. Which of these best describes the change in the metabolic rate during pregnancy?
a. It decreases as a result of a decrease in maternal physical activity.
b. It increases as a result of fetal growth.
c. It increases as a result of fetal growth and maternal cardiac output.
d. It decreases as a result of an increase in maternal adipose tissue.
ANS: C
Hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy support the changes in the maternal body to
support the growth of the fetus. These changes include the growth of metabolically active
tissue in the uterus, placenta, and fetus. Additionally, blood volume is increased, and cardiac
workload increases. Because the metabolic rate is dependent on metabolically active tissues,
as these increase and the heart’s work increases, the overall metabolic rate increases.
13. A dish has 60 g of carbohydrate, 35 g of protein, and 25 g of fat. How many total kilocalories
are in the dish?
a. 480 kcal
b. 555 kcal
