EMT Refresher Continuing Education (CE) Exam Practice Questions and
Answers PDF | Emergency Medical Technician Patient Assessment,
Trauma and Medical Emergencies, Airway Management, CPR and
Resuscitation, Shock and Bleeding Control, Cardiac and Respiratory
Emergencies, Prehospital Care Protocols, Patient Safety and EMS
Documentation | Complete EMT Refresher CE Exam Preparation Guide
Question 1: During the primary assessment of an unresponsive adult patient, you
note the patient is not breathing normally and has no palpable carotid pulse.
According to current BLS guidelines, what is your immediate next action?
A. Apply an AED immediately before beginning compressions
B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
C. Provide two rescue breaths before starting compressions
D. Check the patient's blood glucose level
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
RATIONALE: Current AHA BLS guidelines emphasize starting high-quality chest
compressions immediately upon recognition of cardiac arrest in an adult patient with
no pulse and no normal breathing. The CAB sequence (Circulation-Airway-Breathing)
prioritizes compressions to minimize delay in perfusion. While AED application is
critical, compressions should begin immediately while another rescuer retrieves the
AED
journalfeed.org
.
Question 2: Which of the following findings is MOST indicative of adequate
ventilation in an adult patient receiving bag-valve-mask assistance?
A. Chest rise with each ventilation
B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
C. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
D. End-tidal CO2 reading of 25 mmHg
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Chest rise with each ventilation
RATIONALE: Visible chest rise is the most immediate and reliable clinical indicator that
ventilations are effectively delivering air to the lungs during bag-valve-mask ventilation.
While pulse oximetry, heart rate, and capnography provide valuable information, they
are secondary indicators and may be affected by other factors. Chest rise confirms
adequate tidal volume delivery and proper airway positioning
ems.utah.gov
.
,Question 3: A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of slurred speech,
right-sided facial droop, and inability to raise his left arm. Using the Cincinnati
Prehospital Stroke Scale, how many abnormal findings are present?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Zero
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Three
RATIONALE: The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses three components:
facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormalities. This patient demonstrates facial
droop (abnormal), arm drift (inability to raise left arm indicates drift), and slurred
speech (abnormal speech). All three findings are abnormal, indicating a high probability
of acute stroke and warranting immediate transport to a stroke-capable facility
en.wikipedia.org
.
Question 4: When administering oral glucose to a conscious patient with
suspected hypoglycemia, which assessment finding is the MOST critical
prerequisite?
A. Blood glucose reading below 70 mg/dL
B. Patient's ability to swallow and protect their airway
C. History of diabetes mellitus
D. Presence of diaphoresis and tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patient's ability to swallow and protect their airway
RATIONALE: Before administering any oral medication or substance, the EMT must
ensure the patient has an intact gag reflex and can protect their airway to prevent
aspiration. While a blood glucose reading below 60-70 mg/dL supports the diagnosis of
hypoglycemia, and clinical signs like diaphoresis are helpful, airway protection is the
absolute prerequisite for safe oral glucose administration
美国卫生与公共服务部NIH
.
Question 5: Which of the following scenarios BEST meets criteria for immediate
transport to a trauma center according to field triage guidelines?
A. Adult patient with isolated forearm fracture and stable vital signs
B. Pediatric patient with GCS of 14 after a low-speed MVC
C. Adult patient with systolic blood pressure of 85 mmHg after a fall
D. Patient with minor facial laceration and no other injuries
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. Adult patient with systolic blood pressure of 85 mmHg after
a fall
RATIONALE: According to the CDC Field Triage Guidelines, a systolic blood pressure
less than 90 mmHg in an adult is a physiologic criterion that mandates transport to a
trauma center. This finding indicates potential hemorrhagic shock and requires
resources available at a trauma center. The other scenarios do not meet physiologic,
anatomic, or mechanism criteria for trauma center transport
www.ems.gov
.
Question 6: What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-
rescuer CPR on an infant?
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 5:1
D. 3:1
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 15:2
RATIONALE: For two-rescuer CPR on infants and children, the AHA recommends a
compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2. This differs from the 30:2 ratio used for single-
rescuer pediatric CPR and all adult CPR. The 15:2 ratio provides more frequent
ventilations, which is physiologically appropriate for pediatric patients whose cardiac
arrest is more commonly respiratory in origin
journalfeed.org
.
Question 7: An EMT is preparing to administer epinephrine via auto-injector for a
patient experiencing anaphylaxis. Which route of administration is utilized by
standard epinephrine auto-injectors?
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intranasal
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Intramuscular
RATIONALE: Standard epinephrine auto-injectors (such as EpiPen) are designed to
deliver medication via the intramuscular route, typically into the anterolateral thigh. IM
administration provides rapid absorption and onset of action, which is critical in
anaphylaxis management. Subcutaneous administration results in slower absorption
and is not recommended for acute anaphylaxis
ems.utah.gov
, .
Question 8: During assessment of a pediatric patient, which component of the
Pediatric Assessment Triangle evaluates the child's muscle tone, interactiveness,
and consolability?
A. Work of Breathing
B. Circulation to Skin
C. Appearance
D. Disability
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Appearance
RATIONALE: The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) consists of three components:
Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation to Skin. Appearance is assessed using
the TICLS mnemonic: Tone, Interactiveness, Consolability, Look/Gaze, and Speech/Cry.
This rapid visual and auditory assessment helps determine if a child is "sick" or "not
sick" without equipment
美国卫生与公共服务部NIH
.
Question 9: A patient with a known history of asthma presents with severe
respiratory distress, wheezing, and inability to speak in full sentences. After
administering high-flow oxygen, what is the MOST appropriate next intervention
within the EMT scope of practice?
A. Administer albuterol via metered-dose inhaler with spacer
B. Initiate CPAP therapy
C. Assist with patient's prescribed albuterol inhaler
D. Administer intramuscular epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Assist with patient's prescribed albuterol inhaler
RATIONALE: Within the EMT scope of practice, EMTs may assist patients with
administering their own prescribed medications, including albuterol metered-dose
inhalers. EMTs generally cannot independently administer albuterol unless specifically
authorized by local protocol. CPAP and IM epinephrine are typically beyond the EMT
scope
www.wvoems.org
.
Question 10: Which finding is MOST suggestive of tension pneumothorax in a
trauma patient?
A. Bilateral decreased breath sounds
B. Tracheal deviation away from the injured side
Answers PDF | Emergency Medical Technician Patient Assessment,
Trauma and Medical Emergencies, Airway Management, CPR and
Resuscitation, Shock and Bleeding Control, Cardiac and Respiratory
Emergencies, Prehospital Care Protocols, Patient Safety and EMS
Documentation | Complete EMT Refresher CE Exam Preparation Guide
Question 1: During the primary assessment of an unresponsive adult patient, you
note the patient is not breathing normally and has no palpable carotid pulse.
According to current BLS guidelines, what is your immediate next action?
A. Apply an AED immediately before beginning compressions
B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
C. Provide two rescue breaths before starting compressions
D. Check the patient's blood glucose level
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
RATIONALE: Current AHA BLS guidelines emphasize starting high-quality chest
compressions immediately upon recognition of cardiac arrest in an adult patient with
no pulse and no normal breathing. The CAB sequence (Circulation-Airway-Breathing)
prioritizes compressions to minimize delay in perfusion. While AED application is
critical, compressions should begin immediately while another rescuer retrieves the
AED
journalfeed.org
.
Question 2: Which of the following findings is MOST indicative of adequate
ventilation in an adult patient receiving bag-valve-mask assistance?
A. Chest rise with each ventilation
B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
C. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
D. End-tidal CO2 reading of 25 mmHg
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Chest rise with each ventilation
RATIONALE: Visible chest rise is the most immediate and reliable clinical indicator that
ventilations are effectively delivering air to the lungs during bag-valve-mask ventilation.
While pulse oximetry, heart rate, and capnography provide valuable information, they
are secondary indicators and may be affected by other factors. Chest rise confirms
adequate tidal volume delivery and proper airway positioning
ems.utah.gov
.
,Question 3: A 45-year-old male presents with sudden onset of slurred speech,
right-sided facial droop, and inability to raise his left arm. Using the Cincinnati
Prehospital Stroke Scale, how many abnormal findings are present?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Zero
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Three
RATIONALE: The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses three components:
facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormalities. This patient demonstrates facial
droop (abnormal), arm drift (inability to raise left arm indicates drift), and slurred
speech (abnormal speech). All three findings are abnormal, indicating a high probability
of acute stroke and warranting immediate transport to a stroke-capable facility
en.wikipedia.org
.
Question 4: When administering oral glucose to a conscious patient with
suspected hypoglycemia, which assessment finding is the MOST critical
prerequisite?
A. Blood glucose reading below 70 mg/dL
B. Patient's ability to swallow and protect their airway
C. History of diabetes mellitus
D. Presence of diaphoresis and tachycardia
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Patient's ability to swallow and protect their airway
RATIONALE: Before administering any oral medication or substance, the EMT must
ensure the patient has an intact gag reflex and can protect their airway to prevent
aspiration. While a blood glucose reading below 60-70 mg/dL supports the diagnosis of
hypoglycemia, and clinical signs like diaphoresis are helpful, airway protection is the
absolute prerequisite for safe oral glucose administration
美国卫生与公共服务部NIH
.
Question 5: Which of the following scenarios BEST meets criteria for immediate
transport to a trauma center according to field triage guidelines?
A. Adult patient with isolated forearm fracture and stable vital signs
B. Pediatric patient with GCS of 14 after a low-speed MVC
C. Adult patient with systolic blood pressure of 85 mmHg after a fall
D. Patient with minor facial laceration and no other injuries
,CORRECT ANSWER: C. Adult patient with systolic blood pressure of 85 mmHg after
a fall
RATIONALE: According to the CDC Field Triage Guidelines, a systolic blood pressure
less than 90 mmHg in an adult is a physiologic criterion that mandates transport to a
trauma center. This finding indicates potential hemorrhagic shock and requires
resources available at a trauma center. The other scenarios do not meet physiologic,
anatomic, or mechanism criteria for trauma center transport
www.ems.gov
.
Question 6: What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-
rescuer CPR on an infant?
A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 5:1
D. 3:1
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 15:2
RATIONALE: For two-rescuer CPR on infants and children, the AHA recommends a
compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2. This differs from the 30:2 ratio used for single-
rescuer pediatric CPR and all adult CPR. The 15:2 ratio provides more frequent
ventilations, which is physiologically appropriate for pediatric patients whose cardiac
arrest is more commonly respiratory in origin
journalfeed.org
.
Question 7: An EMT is preparing to administer epinephrine via auto-injector for a
patient experiencing anaphylaxis. Which route of administration is utilized by
standard epinephrine auto-injectors?
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intranasal
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Intramuscular
RATIONALE: Standard epinephrine auto-injectors (such as EpiPen) are designed to
deliver medication via the intramuscular route, typically into the anterolateral thigh. IM
administration provides rapid absorption and onset of action, which is critical in
anaphylaxis management. Subcutaneous administration results in slower absorption
and is not recommended for acute anaphylaxis
ems.utah.gov
, .
Question 8: During assessment of a pediatric patient, which component of the
Pediatric Assessment Triangle evaluates the child's muscle tone, interactiveness,
and consolability?
A. Work of Breathing
B. Circulation to Skin
C. Appearance
D. Disability
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Appearance
RATIONALE: The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) consists of three components:
Appearance, Work of Breathing, and Circulation to Skin. Appearance is assessed using
the TICLS mnemonic: Tone, Interactiveness, Consolability, Look/Gaze, and Speech/Cry.
This rapid visual and auditory assessment helps determine if a child is "sick" or "not
sick" without equipment
美国卫生与公共服务部NIH
.
Question 9: A patient with a known history of asthma presents with severe
respiratory distress, wheezing, and inability to speak in full sentences. After
administering high-flow oxygen, what is the MOST appropriate next intervention
within the EMT scope of practice?
A. Administer albuterol via metered-dose inhaler with spacer
B. Initiate CPAP therapy
C. Assist with patient's prescribed albuterol inhaler
D. Administer intramuscular epinephrine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Assist with patient's prescribed albuterol inhaler
RATIONALE: Within the EMT scope of practice, EMTs may assist patients with
administering their own prescribed medications, including albuterol metered-dose
inhalers. EMTs generally cannot independently administer albuterol unless specifically
authorized by local protocol. CPAP and IM epinephrine are typically beyond the EMT
scope
www.wvoems.org
.
Question 10: Which finding is MOST suggestive of tension pneumothorax in a
trauma patient?
A. Bilateral decreased breath sounds
B. Tracheal deviation away from the injured side
