Portage Learning BIOD 121 Nutrition Final Exam | Full Course Comprehensive Review | Questions & Verified Answers | Graded A+ Guide 2026

Master every module of your nutrition course with this definitive BIOD 121 Final Exam study guide from Portage Learning. This 2026 comprehensive review features verified answers covering the entire curriculum, from the physiological drives of hunger and appetite to the complexities of life-cycle nutrition. Deepen your knowledge of macronutrient calculations, the ABCDEs of nutritional assessment, and the hormonal regulation of satiety involving leptin and ghrelin. The document provides clear explanations on BMR and BMI, the DASH diet for hypertension, and critical elderly care topics like sarcopenia and the DETERMINE malnutrition screening tool. Whether you are identifying inorganic minerals or calculating energy density, this Graded A+ resource is meticulously organized to ensure you pass your final exam with confidence and a thorough understanding of clinical nutritional science. Portage Learning BIOD 121 Final Exam 2026 T/F: Taste and texture are often the 2 most important reasons specific foods are consumed in North America _correct answer_ True T/F: Nutrition is the science that links foods to health and disease. _correct answer_ True Describe hunger and appetite, including their associated drives and sensations._correct answer_ Hunger - internal drive; churning, growling, stomach pain; Appetite - external drive; pleasant food sensations, leads us to eat when not hungry Considering the physiology as you eat, (1) explain what hormones are released as the stomach stretched. (2) List the area of the brain that provides neural regulation and appetite suppression to inhibit eating. _correct answer_ As the stomach fills and stretches, leptin, serotonin, cholecystokinin (CCK) are released and travel to the hypothalamus to activate the satiety center. A is a substance that can promote growth and development, maintain tissues and cells, fuel the body for physical and metabolic work, or regular a body process. _correct answer_ Nutrient Which type of molecule is defined as a substance that does not contain carbon? _correct answer_ InorganicT/F: A mineral is an organic micronutrient that regulates body processes and provides structure. _correct answer_ False: A mineral is an inorganic micronutrient that regulates body processes and provides structure. Which of the following is an inorganic macronutrient: a) Vitamins b) Water c) Protein d) Carbohydrates e) Minerals _correct answer_ b) Water List (1) the building blocks (or monomers) of PROTEINS, (2) at least 2 of their functions, and (3) at least 2 common sources of that nutrient in the diet. _correct answer_ (1) Amino acids (2) Energy source, structure, regulation (3) Meat, dairy, legumes, grains, and vegetables T/F: Minerals contain both water and fat soluble forms._correct answer_ False: Vitamins contain both water and fat soluble forms; Minerals are water soluble salts Micro-minerals are referred to as minerals. _correct answer_ Trace Tom is on a diet restricting his consumption of cholesterol. Which macromolecule would he be limiting? _correct answer_ Lipids Which of the six nutrient classes are not sources of energy? _correct answer_ Water, Vitamins, Minerals What is the definition of a kilocalorie? _correct answer_ The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water one degree Celsius.How would you explain the difference between nutrient dense and empty calorie foods? _correct answer_ Nutrient-dense foods are those with a high amount of vitamins and minerals, along with the macronutrients that can be used as fuel. Empty calorie foods are high in calories but contain little vitamins or minerals, so they have lower nutrient value. Compare and contrast undernutrition and overnutrition. Include the terms' definitions and how they influence health outcomes. _correct answer_ Both over and under nutrition have negative health consequences with an imbalance of the consumption of nutrients or lack thereof. They are both forms of malnutrition. Overnutrition is the consumption of excess calories and fats (cholesterol/saturated), which increases the risk of chronic disease and obesity, and can lead to toxicity. Undernutrition is the opposite, when nutrient intake does not meet the nutrient needs of the body. This can lead to slowed metabolic processes and deficiencies. Which of the ABCDE's of nutritional assessment has to do with physicalexamination? _correct answer_ Clinical Calorie and portion size _correct answer_ Balance Increase consumption of some groups and limit consumption of others _correct answer_ Moderation Consume all food groups _correct answer_ Variety According to the MyPlate concept of Start Simple and Make Every Bite Count, give 2 examples of foods to increase and 2 examples of foods to reduce in the diet. _correct answer_ Increase: - Fruits and vegetables (Make half your plate fruits andvegetables) - Whole grains (Half of consumed grains should be whole grains.) - Fat-free or Low-fat (1%) milk instead of whole milk. Reduce: - High sodium foods (choose the foods with comparatively lower amounts of sodium) - Sugary drinks (drink water instead) - Foods with added fats and sugar. According to MyPlate, should make up 50% of the plate. _correct answer_ Fruits and Vegetables What is a dietary assessment? _correct answer_ Evaluation of an individual's dietary intake (or what they eat) to determine any deficiencies or problematic areas. You are grocery shopping and notice a box of breakfast bars that are calcium fortified. On the front of the box is the statement, " Calcium builds strong bones". Which type of claim would this advertising be? _correct answer_ Structure/function claimList at least 3 items that are typically presented on a food product. _correct answer_ Product name Name and address of the manufacturer Serving size Amount of product in the package Ingredient listed in descending order Nutrition facts As a dietitian, a client comes to you after her annual physical. Her physician diagnosed her as being obese and informed her that she needs to change her diet habits before she develops heart disease or diabetes. (1) The Dietary Guidelines recommend making every bite count. Explain to the client what this statement means. (2) Discuss the types of beverages you recommend to avoid added sugars and saturated fats. _correct answer_ 1. Focus on nutrient dense foods and beverages and limit those with added sugar, saturated fats and sodium. Benefits add up over time. 2. Low fat or fat free milk, fortified soy milk, lactose free dairy and water Which of the following is NOT a cognitive external force that influences our eating: _correct answer_ Religious BeliefsWhich type of diffusion can move substances easily in and out of cells down concentration gradients through the cell membrane? _correct answer_ Passive diffusion Starting at the oral cavity list the path of food it would travel to reach the anus. _correct answer_ Oral cavity -- esophagus --stomach --small intestine --large intestine (colon) --rectum --anus. T/F: The gallbladder produces bile for digestion and excess is stored in the liver. _correct answer_ FALSE: The liver produces bile for digestion and it is stored in the gallbladder. T/F: Intrinsic factor is the hormone responsible for controlling the concentration of acid in the stomach._correct answer_ FALSE: Gastrin is the hormone responsible for controlling the concentration of acid in the stomach; Intrinsic factor is a vital glycoprotein produced in the stomach and is necessary for the B12 to be absorbed. Slow movement of fecal matter through the colon causes it to be hard, dry, and infrequent _correct answer_ Constipation Loose, water, and frequent stools _correct answer_ Diarrhea Small pouches that push out through weak spots in the colon and become inflamed _correct answer_ Diverticulosis Associated with bloating, abdominal pain, cramps, diarrhea, or constipation_correct answer_ IBS (Irritable Bowel Syndrome) Sores that develop along the GI tract trigger by H. Pylori, NSAIDs, stress or smoking _correct answer_ Peptic Ulcer List a dietary treatment for constipation. _correct answer_ Eating high fiber foods, such as whole grains, dried and fresh fruits and vegetables, and nuts, will stimulate the large intestinal muscles. Individuals should also increase the amount of liquids consumed. List a treatment for ulcers/peptic ulcers. _correct answer_ Medical treatments (antibiotics, drugs that block/reduce acid production, and protect lining of stomach) and lifestyle changes (decrease stress, stop smoking and avoiding foods that trigger symptoms) Which of the following is NOT true concerning blood sugar regulation?a) Low blood sugar is called hypoglycemia b) Glucagon helps to increase blood sugar levels c) Excess glucose is stored as glycogen d) Insulin is responsible for blood glucose control e) The thyroid controls blood sugar regulation _correct answer_ e) The thyroid controls blood sugar regulation: The monomer (single unit that can be absorbed) proteins are digested into _correct answer_ Amino Acids Galactose _correct answer_ Found in milk Sucrose _correct answer_ Example of a disaccharide Glucose_correct answer_ The monosaccharide referred to as blood sugar Fructose _correct answer_ Example of a monosaccharide Explain what digestive ailments can be addressed by (1) soluble and (2) insoluble fiber. Make sure to address how each type of fiber works in your answer. _correct answer_ Soluble fiber slows glucose absorption and fat, so it's associated with lowering cholesterol (and it provides satiety). Soluble fiber dissolves in water creating an intestinal barrier to block absorption. Insoluble fiber can improve constipation. It does not dissolve in water and is not broken down by intestinal bacteria so it increases stool mass and speed of passage through the large intestine. Which enzyme primarily digests starch? a) Sucrase b) Amylase c) Maltase d) Trechalase e) Lactase _correct answer_b) Amylase Carbohydrates provide kcal of energy/gram _correct answer_ 4 The process of gluconeogenesis is when the body converts or into glucose for fuel _correct answer_ Lipids/Protein T/F: High blood sugar levels are referred to as hypoglycemia. _correct answer_ False: High blood sugar levels are referred to as hyperglycemia; Low blood sugar levels are referred to as hypoglycemia. (1) Explain how type 2 diabetes occurs and the disease's symptoms. (2) Explain at least 3 ways it is different from type 1 diabetes. _correct answer_ (1) Type 2 is caused by insulin resistance or when the pancreas doesn'tproduce enough insulin. Typically associated with being overweight/diet. Symptoms include excessive thirst, urination, hunger, weight loss and ketosis). (2) Differences Cause - type 1is caused by destruction of the pancreatic beta cells that secrete insulin Onset - type 1 has a childhood/early adult onset whereas type 2 is typically adulthood Treatment - type 1 is treated by insulin whereas type 2 is treated with oral medications (anti-diabetic drugs) What is the difference between essential vs nonessential amino acids? _correct answer_ Nonessential amino acids can be manufactured by the body or converted from other existing matter. There 11 are nonessential amino acids. Essential amino acids are 9 amino acids that we must consume through the diet as our bodies cannot naturally synthesize them. What term describes the state when protein intake is equivalent to the amount of protein lost? _correct answer_ Protein equilibrium Hillary is having her diet evaluated. She commonly will only eat 1 item.Like a bowl of rice, or some green lentils. As it pertains to proteins, explain to Hillary the difference between complete and incomplete proteins. Would her way of eating introduce complementary proteins into her meal? _correct answer_ Complete proteins are derived from animals and contain all essential amino acids. Other than soy, plants provide incomplete proteins where more than 1 essential amino acid is lacking. She needs to consume a combination of at least 2 incomplete proteins. T/F: The type of fatty acid is dependent on the bonds that link the oxygen units together. _correct answer_ False: The type of fatty acid is dependent on the bonds that link the carbon units together. Explain why it is easier to get omega 6 in a typical diet than omega 3. _correct answer_ It has to do with the types of foods the essential fatty acids are present in. Omega 6 is present in vegetable oils and is more prevalent and convenient to obtain in our diets.Lipoprotein _correct answer_ Lipids surrounded by a shell of phospholipids, protein, and cholesterol. Cholesterol _correct answer_ A sterol that contains no glycerol backbone Monosaturated fatty acid _correct answer_ A fatty acid chain containing a single double bond between carbon atoms Polyunsaturated fatty acid _correct answer_ A fatty acid chain with 2 or more carbon-carbon double bonds Describe why HDL is considered a marker of cardiovascular health. Explain where it is made, it's main components and function in your answer. _correct answer_ HDL is made primarily in the liver and is composed of protein. Thus it is acholesterol scavenger, that picks up excess cholesterol and brings it to the liver for excretion and elimination. It's a marker for cardiovascular health because it is associated with lower cholesterol and the protective effects of lower cholesterol on the cardiovascular system. List at least 3 conditions that increase mortality risk for patients with metabolic syndrome. _correct answer_ Obesity, hypertension, and Type 2 Diabetes You are volunteering with a medical relief group in a developing nation. A mother brings a child to the clinic who has had severe weight loss, has a skin and bones appearance and severe growth impairment. What type of malnutrition is he most likely suffering from? _correct answer_ Marasmus T/F: Foods that are high in sugar as also good sources of fiber. _correct answer_ FALSE: Foods that are often high in starch are good sources of fiber.For (1) a hypoglycemic state, and (2) a hyperglycemic state, list the hormones that the pancreas would release in each state and how the hormones would influence blood glucose levels. _correct answer_ 1. Glucagon - will break down glycogen stores in liver to increase blood glucose levels 2. Insulin - increases cellular uptake of glucose to lower blood glucose levels Jill says she considers herself a vegetarian, and you observe her eating a lunch with mashed potatoes, steamed broccoli and grilled salmon. What type of diet is this considered to be? _correct answer_ Pesco vegetarian or "Pescatarian" Which macromolecule type plays a role in contributing to acid/base balance, immune function and body regulation? _correct answer_ Proteins Name at least 2 examples of when negative energy balance occurs._correct answer_ During illness or trauma that affects appetite or intake, healing, or as an intentional weight loss strategy. Basal metabolic rate _correct answer_ Number of calories used by the body while in a fasting state Thermic Effect of food _correct answer_ Energy used for the digestion and absorption of what we ingest Physical Activity _correct answer_ Accounts for 15-40% of energy expenditure depending on type of activity, body size, and fitness level. What is the range of scores for a normal BMI? _correct answer_ 18.5-25What populations would not be advised to use the general BMI? _correct answer_ children, pregnant/breastfeeding individuals, short stature adults, muscular individuals, and the elderly Which method is used to determine a person's body fat by measuring the fat layer just under the skin at several locations using a caliper? a) underwater weighing b) bioelectrical impedance c) DEXA d) Anthropometrics e) Radiation _correct answer_ d) Anthropometrics Other than location of body fat and weight, name at least 2 other important indicators of obesity. _correct answer_ OPTIONS: Amount (percentage) of body fat, waist circumference, waist-to-hip-ratio T/F: When fewer calories than normal are used to maintain body function it is referred to as set point theory._correct answer_ False: When fewer calories than normal are used to maintain body function it is referred to as a thrifty metabolism; The theory that states each of us has a genetically predetermined body weight and the body resists change beyond that point is referred to as set point theory Casey has gone through bouts of weight loss because she will increase her activity and decrease her calories. However, after a few months, she generally backs off her weight loss regimen and returns to her typical heavier weight. What is this concept called and name the hormone that is hypothesized to be involved. _correct answer_ Set point theory; leptin List the daily standards of calorie control for males and females. _correct answer_ Males - 1,500 calories Females - 1,200 calories Patrick was comparing two nutrition labels for snacks at the grocery store. Snack #1 had 168 calories per serving and 7 g of total fat, while Snack #2 had 195 calories and 5 g of fat. Which snack would be the better choicefor Patrick's weight loss goals and why? _correct answer_ Snack #1 because when looking at labels and comparing products, remember that calories are important, regardless of whether they come from fat, carbohydrates, or protein. Along with nutrition label reading and keep a food journal, what are at least 2 more recommended behaviors for controlling calories? _correct answer_ Measuring portion sizes Limiting high fat foods Limiting empty calorie food/food high in sugar Why can foods advertised as "low-fat" and "fat-free" really not be advantageous for weight loss? _correct answer_ The calorie difference between low-fat and its regular counterpart can be marginal as extra sugar (or salt) can be used to improve the taste. Additionally, the lack of fat or simply the knowledge that the product is lower in calories, may lead you to actually eat more of a low-fat product. The end result is often the consumption of more calories than if you had just ingested the regular product initially.Why is it recommended to not consume high calorie drinks like colas and alcohol for weight loss and maintenance? _correct answer_ Drinks can have high calories but not lead to a feeling of fullness or satiety, so people will also ingest food as well and exceed their calorie intake or allowance for weight loss and maintenance. What is linked to physical activity? _correct answer_ Mood improvement, increased productivity T/F: Science now shows that individuals must be active for a continuous period of 60 minutes for it to be beneficial. _correct answer_ False: Science now shows that increments of activity that add up to 60 minutes can be just as beneficial. Current recommendations are for steps per day for adults. _correct answer_10,000 Along with aerobic exercise, list the 2 other categories of physical exercise shown to be beneficial to overall health. _correct answer_ Resistance (or strength) training Stretching T/F: Chain breaking describes how certain factors can prevent us from reaching our weight loss goals. _correct answer_ FALSE: Behavior modification describes how certain factors can prevent us from reaching our weight loss goals; Chain breaking is breaking the tie that connects two or more behaviors that encourage overeating. Jill is trying to reduce her calories and increase her activity level to lose weight. She works in a business office, and when things get busy and stressful, she likes to go to the vending machine and get a candy bar. As part of her new lifestyle change, instead of going to the vending machine for a break, she decides to walk around the building instead. What kind of behavior modification is Jill demonstrating?_correct answer_ Cognitive restructuring Which of the following would be an example of a weight loss program that is part of a social support? a) Hospitals b) Community colleges that offer classes c) TOPS (take off pounds sensibly) d) Physician e) Dietician _correct answer_ c) TOPS (take pounds off sensibly) What are the requirements for someone to be eligible to take medications, go on an extremely low-calorie diet, or have bariatric surgery? _correct answer_ BMI of 30, or 27 with co-morbid health risks. List at least 2 types of states that can cause an individual to be underweight, and a specific example from that state. _correct answer_ OPTIONS Disease: GI disorder like irritable bowel disease, AIDS, cancer Genetics: inherit a small frame size Eating disorder: excessive diet/exercise, bulimia/anorexiaT/F: For underweight individuals, physical activity is focused on building muscle mass. _correct answer_ True List a health risk associated with being underweight: _correct answer_ Delayed wound and illness healing The Paleolithic or Caveman Diet (aka Paleo) is based on the idea that human ancestors up to 10,000 years ago ate a very different diet than our modern one, and a change back to the type of eating of our ancestors will help dieters to lose weight by decreasing appetite and increasing energy by matching our eating to our genes. During the paleolithic period, people were hunter gatherers, so any food commonly farmed would be eliminated, thus dieters cannot consume diary, legumes, refined sugar, salt, potatoes, processed foods or grains. Along with weight loss, the diet touts improved glucose tolerance, blood pressure control, lower triglycerides and appetite management. Because of the need of fresh fruits and vegetables, nuts and seeds and wild, grass-fed or unfarmed meats, the paleo diet can be veryexpensive to maintain. Celebrities like Jack Osbourne, Megan Fox and Jessica Biel are rumored to eat via the Paleo diet. _correct answer_ Part 1: Yes, options for evidence include: quick weight loss, celebrity endorsement, limited selection of foods, expensive , cure all, does not recognize role of exercise Part 2: Low Carbohydrate because of the grain restrictions T/F: Vitamins help to regulate and support a variety of processes. These include digestive processes, absorption and metabolism. _correct answer_ True Provide two examples of Essential Vitamins that can be synthesized by our bodies. _correct answer_ Vitamin K and Vitamin D (also Biotin, Niacin, and Vitamin A) Explain the process of Enrichment and why it is necessary during food processing._correct answer_ Nutrients are lost in the milling process. Enrichment is the process of adding them back to the final food product. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin? a) Vitamin D b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin K d) Vitamin E _correct answer_ b) Vitamin C What form of vitamin A is Beta-carotene considered to be? _correct answer_ Provitamin A or Carotenoids A friend recently had her annual physical, and her doctor informed her that her Vitamin D levels were too low. As a nurse, she comes to you for advice on what foods to consume to increase her vitamin D intake. Provide 4 examples of foods that are rich in Vitamin D. _correct answer_ fatty fish, fortified cereals, eggs, butter, fortified milk and yogurt. Vitamin K_correct answer_ Small amounts of this vitamin are synthesized in the intestinal tract Vitamin D _correct answer_ Osteomalcia is the result of inadequate intake Vitamin E _correct answer_ The chemical name for this vitamin is Tocopherol Retinal (Vitamin A) _correct answer_ Helps the eye adjust from bright to dim light. T/F: The B complex vitamins and vitamin C have minimal storage in the body and must be consumed daily. _correct answer_ TrueDefine the term bioavailability. _correct answer_ The amount of a substance that is absorbed and available to the body. Niacin _correct answer_ Deficiency: Pellagra Folate _correct answer_ Deficiency: Spina Bifida Riboflavin _correct answer_ Deficiency: Cheilosis Vitamin B12 _correct answer_ Deficiency: Pernicious Anemia Name the vitamin that collagen synthesis and antioxidant activity aredependent upon. _correct answer_ Vitamin C Water found inside a cell is considered ; water as part of the blood is considered . _correct answer_ Intracellcular; Extracellular What two ions control the extracellular water volume? _correct answer_ sodium and chloride Jeff is a wrestler and has been trying to lose weight, he has restricted his intake of protein, sodium and especially fluids. Recently he noticed a change in the color of his urine and is dehydrated. State how Jeff's urine color has changed and explain why it has occurred. _correct answer_ When there is inadequate fluid intake the urine becomes concentrated and appears darker in color. (Urine color should be pale to clear yellow.)Which of the following individuals would be more likely to be dehydrated and not recognize that they are thirsty? a) Frank, a 40 year old, who walks 30 minutes daily b) Shelby, a 55 year old, who currently has the flu c) Jill, a young mom and a writer d) Kay, a high school student who is on the golf team _correct answer_ b) Shelby, a 55 year old, who currently has the flu State the 2 groups used to categorize dietary minerals. _correct answer_ Major and Trace minerals The bioavailability (absorption) of minerals can be affected by several types of interactions. (1) State the interaction from the list that best describes what is occurring in the situation below. (2) List whether the interaction increases or decreases bioavailability. Kate always takes a calcium supplement with an iron supplement before bed. A. Mineral-mineral interaction B. Vitamin-mineral interaction C. Fiber-mineral interaction _correct answer_ (1) A. Mineral-mineral interaction. (2) Bioavailability will decrease.Following the DASH diet will lower the consumption of what mineral? Why would one follow the DASH diet? _correct answer_ Sodium intake will decline. DASH will lower the risk for hypertension and increase fruits, vegetables, whole grains and low fat dairy products. Calcium is necessary for each of the following except: a) Muscle contractions b) Fluid control c) Blood clotting d) Nerve impulse transmission _correct answer_ b) Fluid control What are the three factors that impact the absorption of iron? _correct answer_ Heme vs. nonheme iron (type of iron), iron status and diet ( nutrient interactions) A deficiency in iron will lead to what condition? _correct answer_ Low red blood cells and Anemia (iron deficiency anemia)Hypogeusia results when an individual is deficient in what mineral? Define the term hypogeusia. _correct answer_ Zinc A reduced or inability to taste Joy has come in for her annual physical. As you complete her physical you note that she appears tired and pale. Upon further discussion she shares that she has no appetite and is always cold. What mineral deficiency do you suspect? _correct answer_ Low iron levels (or anemia) would be appropriate answers Briefly explain the term hyposmia and state the mineral deficiency. _correct answer_ A reduced sense of smell related to a zinc deficiency Briefly explain to Sam what is occurring in an individual who has a goiter. Include the mineral that is deficient. _correct answer_ Goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland caused by a deficiency ofiodide. (1) Name the government program that was designed to improve the nation's health. (2) How often are the program objectives updated? _correct answer_ (1) Healthy People is the program designed to improve the nation's health. (2) The objectives are updated every 10 years. (Started in 1979) When establishing a fitness routine, the focus should be on: _correct answer_ Varying one's routine, setting specific goals, maintaining flexibility T/F: When initiating an exercise routine one should start with 30 minutes daily. _correct answer_ True Define Target Zone as related to heart rate. _correct answer_ Target zone is 60%-90% of a person's maximum heart rate.Julie is 25 years of age. She wants to know what her maximum heart rate and her target zone should be when exercising. According to her calculations, her maximum heart rate is 195 and her target zone is 150 to 200 beats per minute. (A) Are her calculations correct? (B) Show your work to support your answer. _correct answer_ (A) No her calculations are not correct. (B) Maximum heart rate is 220 - current age 220- 25 = 195 Target Zone is 60% to 90% of the maximum heart rate. 195 x .60 = 117 195 x .90 = 175.5 Target zone is 117-175.5 beats per minute Order the following macronutrients from 1 to 4 according to the order that cells utilize them for energy requirements with 1 being the first resource to be used, and 4 being the last resource to be utilized. _correct answer_ 1. Adenosine Triphosphate 2. Carbohydrates 3. Fats 4. Protein Optimal performance requires adequate energy and nutrient intake. List the macromolecule where the majority of energy intake should come from and provide one tissue where a form of this nutrient would be stored. _correct answer_Carbohydrates which are stored in the liver or muscle (optional: the stored carbohydrate is called glycogen) T/F: When strength training, protein is the most important nutrient for optimum performance. _correct answer_ False. When strength training, carbohydrates are the most important nutrient for optimum performance. As an athlete, it is difficult to meet nutrient needs when the calorie intake is less than calories. _correct answer_ 1400 Which of the following are true? a) the average adult needs 8 cups of fluid per day b) a well hydrated person had dark yellow urine c) dehydration has no impact on performance d) athletes require additional fluids to regulate body temperature _correct answer_ d) athletes require additional fluids to regulate body temperatureSymptoms of Heatstroke include: _correct answer_ An internal temperature of 104 degrees F Hot, dry skin Paul is in high school and participates in several sports. He does not like the taste of water and prefers sports beverages. Discuss two benefits of drinking sports beverages that you would share with Paul. _correct answer_ Sports beverages contain carbohydrates that supply energy, easily absorbed source of energy, replaces electrolytes (sodium and potassium) Disordered eating includes each of the following except: a) striving for perfection b) steroid use c) healthy weight perspective and body acceptance d) excessive exercising _correct answer_ c) healthy weight perspective and body acceptance Which of the following is a primary eating disorder? a) Binge-eating disorder b) Female Athlete Triad c) Night Eating Syndrome d) Disordered Eating Pattern_correct answer_ a) Binge-eating disorder Match the following characteristics to the correct eating disorder: - Bulimia Nervosa - Anorexia Nervosa 1. Self denial of food leads to feeling empowered 2. Food provides comfort 3. Difficulty controlling impulses 4. Very competitive and obsessive 5. Rituals involving food and calorie counting 6. Normal weight for height is typical _correct answer_ 1. Anorexia 2. Bulimia 3. Bulimia 4. Anorexia 5. Anorexia 6. Bulimia Jill had a stressful day. Once home, she prepared a boxed brownie mix and then devoured the entire pan. Then she finished off the box of cookies on the counter. What is this manner of food consumption called? _correct answer_ Binge-eating disorder List two types of Eating Disorders Not Otherwise Specified. _correct answer_ Female Athlete Triad and Night Eating SyndromeJen rarely eats breakfast or lunch. She has her main meal around 5 O'Clock then takes a bag of chips to the coach to munch on while watching TV. She goes to bed around 11 but Jen normally awakens around 2 am and has a snack before falling back asleep. Which eating disorder would you choose as her diagnosis? _correct answer_ Night Eating Syndrome What term best describes the definition of "learning to eat when you are hungry and stopping when you feel full." _correct answer_ Intuitive Eating Jenn is a 50 year old health care worker. During her annual physical, her physician measures her weight and body fat percentage. What would be the appropriate body fat percentage range for Jenn? _correct answer_ 20-35% What is the most common form of malnutrition among the poor? _correct answer_Undernutrition According to the module, list two causes of food insecurity. _correct answer_ population growth depletion of resources war political unrest inadequate shelter and sanitation List 4 physical consequences of hunger. _correct answer_ Lack of energy declining glucose levels impaired ability to learn and concentrate increased risk of disease and delayed healing declining metabolic rate muscle breakdown Which population would be most at risk for malnutrition? a) Moderate middle class family b) An 85 year old widow c) A 70 year old residing with her children d) A white collar professional _correct answer_ b) An 85 year old widow List two groups of people that may be eligible to qualify to participate in the food pantry program:_correct answer_ Homeless elderly anyone requiring some assistance/low income The organ system develops during: _correct answer_ Embryonic Stage An egg and sperm unite to form a zygote during: _correct answer_ Fetilization A period of continual growth and development occurs during: _correct answer_ Fetal Stage A period of rapid cell division occurs during: _correct answer_ Blastogenic Stage Most organs are formed and the fetus can move by: _correct answer_End of the first trimester Define Small for Gestational Age _correct answer_ an infant small in size relative to its gestational age Which of the following is/are true regarding calorie and nutrient needs during pregnancy: a) Quality is more important than quantity b) Calorie needs double c) An additional 50 grams of protein is required daily to meet needs d) Focus on nutrient dense foods _correct answer_ a) Quality over quantity & d) Focus on Nutrient Dense Foods Jocelyn is a pregnant female who was diagnosed as being obese prior to her pregnancy. At her clinic visit, she wanted to know what an appropriate amount of weight gain during pregnancy would be. _correct answer_ 11-20 lbs If carbohydrate intake is inadequate to meet energy needs during pregnancy, what byproduct is produced and why?_correct answer_ Ketones are produced. Fat is being used as the energy source because there is not enough energy from carbohydrates. List 2 concerns that may occur if iron intake is inadequate during pregnancy. _correct answer_ Iron deficiency may lead to preterm delivery, low birth weight, increased risk of fetal death Stella is in her first trimester of pregnancy and is concerned about a special health concern that her friend experienced, Preeclampsia. List 2 symptoms Stella should be aware of that might indicate that she has Preeclampsia. _correct answer_ Edema, or swelling occurs increased blood pressure protein in the urine changes in blood clotting Sandra is a single mother and just delivered her first child. The nurse on the floor asks if Sandra is planning to breastfeed. Sandra hadn't considered breastfeeding as her mother, sisters, and aunts all nourished their infantswith formula, and she also thought to do the same. Also, Sandra knew she would be returning to work in 6 weeks, and really didn't see how she would breastfeed with her work environment and schedule. List at least 2 factors that are influencing Sandra's decision to use formula to feed her infant instead of breastmilk. _correct answer_ Education social concerns peer pressure work T/F: Prolactin is a thick yellowish substance rich in protein and immune factors. _correct answer_ False: Colostrum is a thick yellowish substance rich in protein and immune factors; Prolactin is secreted by the pituitary gland to produce breastmilk Breastfeeding mom's require additional calories and fluid for adequate milk production. If you are counseling a woman who is interested in nursing, what would be the minimum number of calories to intake to meet nutrient needs? How many cups of fluid would you recommend? _correct answer_ 1800 calories 13 cups of fluidWhich of the following is/are NOT true of formula feeding? a) Helps mom recover more quickly and return to pre-pregnancy weight b) meets the nutrients needs c) promotes adequate growth d) lowers the infants risk for obesity later in life _correct answer_ a) Helps mom recover more quickly and return to pre-pregnancy weight & d) lowers the infants risk for obesity later in life Mike weighed 6 pounds at birth. If he has adequate nutrition and is growing at a normal pattern, Mike should weigh approximately how many pounds at 1 year? _correct answer_ Around 18 lbs Jake is 5 months old. You have started to offer baby cereal on a spoon, but Jake continues to push the food out of his mouth. What is the name for what Jake is doing, and why is it occurring? _correct answer_ Jake is experiencing the Extrusion reflex, and is not ready to eat the cereal. Each of the following should be avoided in children younger than oneexcept: a) cow milk b) eggs c) honey d) grapes _correct answer_ b) eggs Dana is a 4-year old who wants chicken nuggets at every meal. By definition, the desire to eat the same food at each meal is called a . _correct answer_ Food Jag List 2 common mineral deficiencies in the diets of school age children. _correct answer_ Iron and Zinc (Also: Calcium) Briefly explain why physical and physiological changes occur in body structure after the age of 30. _correct answer_ After the age of 30 cell breakdown occurs faster than cell synthesis, this is a result of aging. Match the following scenario with the correct aging process. UsualAging Successful Aging Dean has been a semi vegetarian for several years and practices yoga three times a week. At the age of 70 he takes one blood pressure pill but has no other health concerns and remains active. _correct answer_ Successful Aging According to the module, heredity, lifestyle and are three factors that affect an individual's aging process. _correct answer_ Environment Briefly explain the dietary approach to decrease hypertension. _correct answer_ Focus on Fresh fruits and vegetables, whole grains and low fat dairy products or herbs and spices instead of salt. DASH is a diet that follows these recommendations. What term refers to a loss of muscle mass that occurs as an individual ages? _correct answer_ SarcopeniaEach of the following are Physiological factors related to aging except: a) digestive system changes b) economic factors c) chronic disease d) medications _correct answer_ b) economic factors DETERMINE can be used to evaluate what? _correct answer_ An elderly individual's risk for malnutrition. Older adults consume excess amounts of each of the following except: a) sodium b) fat c) carbs d) fiber _correct answer_ d) fiber Explain why older adults are at risk for dehydration. _correct answer_ They lose their thirst sensation and frequently mistake hunger for thirst.