ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
2025–2026 (NGN Style)
Updated Practice Proctored Guide with Instructor-
Level Rationales
Question 1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed
furosemide. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as an indication
the medication is effective?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased blood glucose
C. Increased heart rate
D. Elevated potassium level
Answer: A. Increased urine output
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of sodium
and water by acting on the loop of Henle in the kidneys. Increased urine output
indicates the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload, which helps relieve
symptoms associated with heart failure such as edema and pulmonary
congestion.
Question 2. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which
manifestation should the nurse expect?
A. Polyuria
B. Tremors
C. Bradycardia
D. Warm dry skin
Answer: B. Tremors
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,ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing
symptoms such as tremors, diaphoresis, tachycardia, anxiety, and hunger.
Polyuria and warm dry skin are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
Question 3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding of stoma care?
A. “The stoma should be pale pink.”
B. “I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water.”
C. “I should change the pouch once a week.”
D. “The stoma should feel painful when touched.”
Answer: B. “I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water.”
Rationale: Proper stoma care includes gentle cleansing of the peristomal skin with
warm water or mild soap to prevent irritation and infection. A healthy stoma
should appear moist and red or pink, not pale, and should not be painful when
touched.
Question 4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following
abdominal surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0–10
B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
C. Blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg
D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates possible respiratory depression,
which can occur due to opioid analgesics or postoperative complications.
Immediate assessment and intervention are necessary to ensure adequate
oxygenation.
Page 2 of 26
, ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
Question 5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has
hypertension and is prescribed lisinopril. Which instruction should the nurse
include?
A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
B. Avoid sudden position changes
C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice
D. Stop the medication if cough develops
Answer: B. Avoid sudden position changes
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause orthostatic hypotension,
especially when therapy begins. Clients should be instructed to change positions
slowly to prevent dizziness and falls.
Question 6. A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Decreased urine specific gravity
C. Tachycardia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: C. Tachycardia
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit leads to decreased circulating blood volume,
causing compensatory tachycardia as the body attempts to maintain adequate
perfusion.
Question 7. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate?
A. Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Venturi mask at 24–28% oxygen
Page 3 of 26
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
2025–2026 (NGN Style)
Updated Practice Proctored Guide with Instructor-
Level Rationales
Question 1. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed
furosemide. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as an indication
the medication is effective?
A. Increased urine output
B. Decreased blood glucose
C. Increased heart rate
D. Elevated potassium level
Answer: A. Increased urine output
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the excretion of sodium
and water by acting on the loop of Henle in the kidneys. Increased urine output
indicates the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload, which helps relieve
symptoms associated with heart failure such as edema and pulmonary
congestion.
Question 2. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which
manifestation should the nurse expect?
A. Polyuria
B. Tremors
C. Bradycardia
D. Warm dry skin
Answer: B. Tremors
Page 1 of 26
,ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system, causing
symptoms such as tremors, diaphoresis, tachycardia, anxiety, and hunger.
Polyuria and warm dry skin are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia.
Question 3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding of stoma care?
A. “The stoma should be pale pink.”
B. “I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water.”
C. “I should change the pouch once a week.”
D. “The stoma should feel painful when touched.”
Answer: B. “I will clean the skin around the stoma with mild soap and water.”
Rationale: Proper stoma care includes gentle cleansing of the peristomal skin with
warm water or mild soap to prevent irritation and infection. A healthy stoma
should appear moist and red or pink, not pale, and should not be painful when
touched.
Question 4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following
abdominal surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0–10
B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
C. Blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg
D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Answer: B. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates possible respiratory depression,
which can occur due to opioid analgesics or postoperative complications.
Immediate assessment and intervention are necessary to ensure adequate
oxygenation.
Page 2 of 26
, ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Exam
Question 5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has
hypertension and is prescribed lisinopril. Which instruction should the nurse
include?
A. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods
B. Avoid sudden position changes
C. Take the medication with grapefruit juice
D. Stop the medication if cough develops
Answer: B. Avoid sudden position changes
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause orthostatic hypotension,
especially when therapy begins. Clients should be instructed to change positions
slowly to prevent dizziness and falls.
Question 6. A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit. Which
finding should the nurse expect?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Decreased urine specific gravity
C. Tachycardia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: C. Tachycardia
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit leads to decreased circulating blood volume,
causing compensatory tachycardia as the body attempts to maintain adequate
perfusion.
Question 7. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate?
A. Nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Venturi mask at 24–28% oxygen
Page 3 of 26
