HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES GRADED A+ GUARANTEED
PASS
An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at
greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty owed, failure to adhere to the
recognized standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip
fracture is the actual injury and the standard of care was "frequent monitoring." (C) implies
that duty was owed and the injury occurred while the nurse was in charge of the client's care.
There is no evidence of negligence in (A, B, and D).
Correct Answer: C
A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which
outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after
discharge? The client
A. asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
B. states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
C. demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
D. has all the necessary supplies for wound care.
A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the client's
ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is important, but is less
of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the client's ability to complete
the wound care.
Correct Answer: C
When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not
achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first?
A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
B. Note which actions were not implemented.
C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.
First, the nurse reviews which actions in the original plan were not implemented (B) in order
to determine why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate
revisions can then be made, which may include revising the expected outcome, or identifying
a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or
were unable to be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be
necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the original plan did not
produce the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: B
The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run
in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The
tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow
rate at how many gtt/min?
A. 42 gtt/min.
B. 83 gtt/min.
C. 125 gtt/min.
D. 250 gtt/min.
gtt/min = 20gtts/ml X 1000 ml/4hrs X 1 hr/60 min
Correct Answer: B
Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are
labeled grain 1.5 per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer?
A+ TEST BANK 3
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
A. 0.5 tablet.
B. 1 tablet.
C. 1.5 tablets.
D. 2 tablets.
15 gr=1 Gm. Converting the prescribed dose of 0.1 grams to grains requires multiplying 0.1 × 15
= 1.5 grains. The tablets come in 1.5 grains, so the nurse should plan to administer 1 tablet (B).
Correct Answer: B
Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement
of a nasogastric tube?
A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.
Both (A and B) are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However,
the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed is (C). (D) is not an indicator of proper
placement.
Correct Answer: C
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a
central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN
solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should
the nurse take?
A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate.
B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
A+ TEST BANK 4
EXAM 2026
HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES GRADED A+ GUARANTEED
PASS
An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at
greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
The four elements of malpractice are: breach of duty owed, failure to adhere to the
recognized standard of care, direct causation of injury, and evidence of actual injury. The hip
fracture is the actual injury and the standard of care was "frequent monitoring." (C) implies
that duty was owed and the injury occurred while the nurse was in charge of the client's care.
There is no evidence of negligence in (A, B, and D).
Correct Answer: C
A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which
outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after
discharge? The client
A. asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
B. states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
C. demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
D. has all the necessary supplies for wound care.
A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the client's
ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is important, but is less
of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the client's ability to complete
the wound care.
Correct Answer: C
When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not
achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first?
A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
B. Note which actions were not implemented.
C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.
First, the nurse reviews which actions in the original plan were not implemented (B) in order
to determine why the original plan did not produce the desired outcome. Appropriate
revisions can then be made, which may include revising the expected outcome, or identifying
a new nursing diagnosis (A). (C) may be needed if the nursing actions were unsuccessful, or
were unable to be implemented. (D) other members of the healthcare team may be
necessary to collaborate changes once the nurse determines why the original plan did not
produce the desired outcome.
Correct Answer: B
The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run
in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10 pound infant by cesarean section. The
tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The nurse plans to set the flow
rate at how many gtt/min?
A. 42 gtt/min.
B. 83 gtt/min.
C. 125 gtt/min.
D. 250 gtt/min.
gtt/min = 20gtts/ml X 1000 ml/4hrs X 1 hr/60 min
Correct Answer: B
Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are
labeled grain 1.5 per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse plan to administer?
A+ TEST BANK 3
, HESI COMPASS COMPREHENSIVE EXIT
EXAM 2026
A. 0.5 tablet.
B. 1 tablet.
C. 1.5 tablets.
D. 2 tablets.
15 gr=1 Gm. Converting the prescribed dose of 0.1 grams to grains requires multiplying 0.1 × 15
= 1.5 grains. The tablets come in 1.5 grains, so the nurse should plan to administer 1 tablet (B).
Correct Answer: B
Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement
of a nasogastric tube?
A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.
Both (A and B) are methods used to determine proper placement of the NG tubing. However,
the best indicator that the tubing is properly placed is (C). (D) is not an indicator of proper
placement.
Correct Answer: C
The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a
central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN
solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should
the nurse take?
A. Infuse normal saline at a keep vein open rate.
B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
A+ TEST BANK 4
