NAB · NHA NURSING HOME
ADMINISTRATOR LINE OF SERVICE
(LOS) EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026/2027
Q1 What is the primary goal of person-centered care in a nursing home?
To focus on the individual resident's preferences, choices, and needs, allowing them to direct
A
their own care and maintain dignity and autonomy.
Q2 What does ADL stand for and what are examples?
Activities of Daily Living; includes bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, eating, and
A
transferring/mobility.
Q3 What is a Minimum Data Set (MDS)?
A standardized federal assessment tool used in nursing homes to collect clinical data on
A
residents' functional capabilities and health conditions to guide care planning.
Q4 How often must a comprehensive care plan be reviewed and updated?
A At least quarterly, or whenever there is a significant change in the resident's condition.
Q5 What is a significant change in status assessment (SCSA)?
An MDS assessment triggered when a resident experiences a major change in health status
A that is not self-limiting, impacts multiple areas, and requires interdisciplinary review and care
plan revision.
Q6 What are the rights of nursing home residents under OBRA 1987?
Residents have rights including the right to dignity, privacy, self-determination, access to
A information, grievance filing, participation in care planning, refusal of treatment, and freedom
from abuse and restraints.
Q7 What is a restraint in the nursing home context?
, Any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached to the
A body that restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's own body and cannot be
easily removed.
Q8 Under what circumstances can physical restraints be used?
Only when necessary to treat medical symptoms, after less restrictive alternatives have been
A tried, with informed consent, and with a physician's order reviewed regularly. Routine use is
prohibited.
Q9 What is the purpose of the RAI (Resident Assessment Instrument)?
To provide a comprehensive framework for assessing residents, identifying their needs, and
A
developing individualized care plans to ensure quality care.
Q10 What is a Care Area Assessment (CAA)?
A component of the RAI process where specific areas triggered by the MDS are investigated
A
more thoroughly to determine whether care planning is needed for that particular clinical issue.
Q11 What is urinary incontinence and how should it be managed?
The inability to control urination. Management includes scheduled toileting, prompted voiding,
A
fluid management, and addressing underlying causes rather than defaulting to catheterization.
Q12 What is a pressure injury (pressure ulcer) and what staging system is used?
Localized damage to skin/underlying tissue over a bony prominence due to pressure or shear.
A Staged 1-4, plus unstageable and deep tissue injury (DTI) categories per NPUAP/EPUAP
guidelines.
Q13 What is the Braden Scale used for?
To assess a resident's risk for developing pressure injuries by evaluating sensory perception,
A
moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear.
Q14 What is a fall risk assessment and when should it be performed?
An evaluation using a validated tool (e.g., Morse Fall Scale) to identify residents at risk for
A
falls; performed on admission, quarterly, after a fall, and with significant change.
Q15 What elements must be included in a post-fall investigation?
Documentation of the fall, resident condition before/after, circumstances of the fall,
A
contributing factors, interventions taken, notifications made, and care plan revisions.
Q16 What is dysphagia and what is its significance in nursing homes?
, Difficulty swallowing. It is significant because it increases risk of aspiration pneumonia,
A
malnutrition, and dehydration. Requires speech therapy evaluation and modified diet textures.
Q17 What is the IDDSI framework?
The International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative — a standardized framework with 8
A levels (0-7) for classifying food textures and drink thicknesses for people with swallowing
difficulties.
Q18 What is delirium and how does it differ from dementia?
Delirium is an acute, fluctuating change in mental status (attention, cognition) often reversible
A and caused by an underlying medical condition. Dementia is a chronic, progressive cognitive
decline.
Q19 What is the difference between palliative care and hospice care?
Palliative care provides comfort-focused care alongside curative treatment at any stage of
A illness. Hospice care is a form of palliative care for those with a terminal prognosis of 6 months
or less who forgo curative treatment.
Q20 What is an Advance Directive?
A legal document expressing a person's wishes regarding medical treatment if they become
A
unable to communicate, including living wills and durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Q21 What is a POLST form?
Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment — a medical order that converts a patient's
A
wishes into actionable orders regarding CPR, hospitalization, and artificial nutrition.
Q22 What is the purpose of the interdisciplinary team (IDT) in a nursing home?
To collaboratively assess residents, develop and revise individualized care plans, coordinate
A
services, and ensure all aspects of a resident's care needs are addressed.
Q23 What is weight loss considered clinically significant in nursing home residents?
Loss of 5% of body weight in one month or 10% in six months is considered clinically
A
significant and requires investigation and care plan revision.
Q24 What is a psychotropic medication and what oversight is required?
Medications affecting mental function (antipsychotics, antidepressants, anxiolytics,
A sedative/hypnotics). Facilities must attempt gradual dose reductions (GDRs) unless clinically
contraindicated.
, Q25 What is Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?
A form of dementia associated with abnormal protein deposits in the brain, characterized by
A
cognitive fluctuations, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism, and REM sleep behavior disorder.
Q26 What is a contracture and how is it prevented?
Permanent shortening of a muscle or tendon causing limited range of motion. Prevention
A
includes range-of-motion exercises, proper positioning, splinting, and physical therapy.
Q27 What is the purpose of the PASARR (Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review)?
To identify nursing facility applicants and residents with mental illness or intellectual disabilities
A
and determine the appropriate level and type of services needed.
Q28 What is a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A UTI occurring in a patient with a urinary catheter or within 48 hours of catheter removal,
A
representing a major preventable healthcare-associated infection.
Q29 What does the F-tag system refer to?
Regulatory tags (F-tags) used by CMS surveyors to cite specific deficiencies in nursing
A
facilities based on Federal Requirements of Participation.
Q30 What is a restorative nursing program?
A program aimed at helping residents regain or maintain their highest practicable level of
A
function through nursing-directed interventions focused on ADLs, mobility, and self-care.
Q31 What is elopement risk in a nursing home context?
The risk that a cognitively impaired resident will leave the facility unsupervised, placing them in
A
potential danger. Prevention requires assessment, monitoring, and environmental safeguards.
Q32 What is a Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) and what is their scope of practice?
A trained caregiver who provides basic care under supervision of licensed nurses, including
A
ADL assistance, vital signs, feeding, positioning, and reporting changes in resident condition.
Q33 What is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987?
Federal legislation that reformed nursing home standards, established resident rights,
A mandated MDS assessments, required care planning, and established the survey process for
Medicare/Medicaid facilities.
Q34 What is a therapeutic diet and who prescribes it?
ADMINISTRATOR LINE OF SERVICE
(LOS) EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026/2027
Q1 What is the primary goal of person-centered care in a nursing home?
To focus on the individual resident's preferences, choices, and needs, allowing them to direct
A
their own care and maintain dignity and autonomy.
Q2 What does ADL stand for and what are examples?
Activities of Daily Living; includes bathing, dressing, grooming, toileting, eating, and
A
transferring/mobility.
Q3 What is a Minimum Data Set (MDS)?
A standardized federal assessment tool used in nursing homes to collect clinical data on
A
residents' functional capabilities and health conditions to guide care planning.
Q4 How often must a comprehensive care plan be reviewed and updated?
A At least quarterly, or whenever there is a significant change in the resident's condition.
Q5 What is a significant change in status assessment (SCSA)?
An MDS assessment triggered when a resident experiences a major change in health status
A that is not self-limiting, impacts multiple areas, and requires interdisciplinary review and care
plan revision.
Q6 What are the rights of nursing home residents under OBRA 1987?
Residents have rights including the right to dignity, privacy, self-determination, access to
A information, grievance filing, participation in care planning, refusal of treatment, and freedom
from abuse and restraints.
Q7 What is a restraint in the nursing home context?
, Any manual method, physical or mechanical device, material, or equipment attached to the
A body that restricts freedom of movement or normal access to one's own body and cannot be
easily removed.
Q8 Under what circumstances can physical restraints be used?
Only when necessary to treat medical symptoms, after less restrictive alternatives have been
A tried, with informed consent, and with a physician's order reviewed regularly. Routine use is
prohibited.
Q9 What is the purpose of the RAI (Resident Assessment Instrument)?
To provide a comprehensive framework for assessing residents, identifying their needs, and
A
developing individualized care plans to ensure quality care.
Q10 What is a Care Area Assessment (CAA)?
A component of the RAI process where specific areas triggered by the MDS are investigated
A
more thoroughly to determine whether care planning is needed for that particular clinical issue.
Q11 What is urinary incontinence and how should it be managed?
The inability to control urination. Management includes scheduled toileting, prompted voiding,
A
fluid management, and addressing underlying causes rather than defaulting to catheterization.
Q12 What is a pressure injury (pressure ulcer) and what staging system is used?
Localized damage to skin/underlying tissue over a bony prominence due to pressure or shear.
A Staged 1-4, plus unstageable and deep tissue injury (DTI) categories per NPUAP/EPUAP
guidelines.
Q13 What is the Braden Scale used for?
To assess a resident's risk for developing pressure injuries by evaluating sensory perception,
A
moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction/shear.
Q14 What is a fall risk assessment and when should it be performed?
An evaluation using a validated tool (e.g., Morse Fall Scale) to identify residents at risk for
A
falls; performed on admission, quarterly, after a fall, and with significant change.
Q15 What elements must be included in a post-fall investigation?
Documentation of the fall, resident condition before/after, circumstances of the fall,
A
contributing factors, interventions taken, notifications made, and care plan revisions.
Q16 What is dysphagia and what is its significance in nursing homes?
, Difficulty swallowing. It is significant because it increases risk of aspiration pneumonia,
A
malnutrition, and dehydration. Requires speech therapy evaluation and modified diet textures.
Q17 What is the IDDSI framework?
The International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative — a standardized framework with 8
A levels (0-7) for classifying food textures and drink thicknesses for people with swallowing
difficulties.
Q18 What is delirium and how does it differ from dementia?
Delirium is an acute, fluctuating change in mental status (attention, cognition) often reversible
A and caused by an underlying medical condition. Dementia is a chronic, progressive cognitive
decline.
Q19 What is the difference between palliative care and hospice care?
Palliative care provides comfort-focused care alongside curative treatment at any stage of
A illness. Hospice care is a form of palliative care for those with a terminal prognosis of 6 months
or less who forgo curative treatment.
Q20 What is an Advance Directive?
A legal document expressing a person's wishes regarding medical treatment if they become
A
unable to communicate, including living wills and durable power of attorney for healthcare.
Q21 What is a POLST form?
Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment — a medical order that converts a patient's
A
wishes into actionable orders regarding CPR, hospitalization, and artificial nutrition.
Q22 What is the purpose of the interdisciplinary team (IDT) in a nursing home?
To collaboratively assess residents, develop and revise individualized care plans, coordinate
A
services, and ensure all aspects of a resident's care needs are addressed.
Q23 What is weight loss considered clinically significant in nursing home residents?
Loss of 5% of body weight in one month or 10% in six months is considered clinically
A
significant and requires investigation and care plan revision.
Q24 What is a psychotropic medication and what oversight is required?
Medications affecting mental function (antipsychotics, antidepressants, anxiolytics,
A sedative/hypnotics). Facilities must attempt gradual dose reductions (GDRs) unless clinically
contraindicated.
, Q25 What is Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?
A form of dementia associated with abnormal protein deposits in the brain, characterized by
A
cognitive fluctuations, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism, and REM sleep behavior disorder.
Q26 What is a contracture and how is it prevented?
Permanent shortening of a muscle or tendon causing limited range of motion. Prevention
A
includes range-of-motion exercises, proper positioning, splinting, and physical therapy.
Q27 What is the purpose of the PASARR (Pre-Admission Screening and Resident Review)?
To identify nursing facility applicants and residents with mental illness or intellectual disabilities
A
and determine the appropriate level and type of services needed.
Q28 What is a catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A UTI occurring in a patient with a urinary catheter or within 48 hours of catheter removal,
A
representing a major preventable healthcare-associated infection.
Q29 What does the F-tag system refer to?
Regulatory tags (F-tags) used by CMS surveyors to cite specific deficiencies in nursing
A
facilities based on Federal Requirements of Participation.
Q30 What is a restorative nursing program?
A program aimed at helping residents regain or maintain their highest practicable level of
A
function through nursing-directed interventions focused on ADLs, mobility, and self-care.
Q31 What is elopement risk in a nursing home context?
The risk that a cognitively impaired resident will leave the facility unsupervised, placing them in
A
potential danger. Prevention requires assessment, monitoring, and environmental safeguards.
Q32 What is a Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) and what is their scope of practice?
A trained caregiver who provides basic care under supervision of licensed nurses, including
A
ADL assistance, vital signs, feeding, positioning, and reporting changes in resident condition.
Q33 What is the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) of 1987?
Federal legislation that reformed nursing home standards, established resident rights,
A mandated MDS assessments, required care planning, and established the survey process for
Medicare/Medicaid facilities.
Q34 What is a therapeutic diet and who prescribes it?
