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ATI FUNDAMENTALS FOR NURSING EDITION 11.0
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 Well Sorted Questions and
Answers | Graded A+ Complete Questions and Answers
Graded A+ Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: SAFETY AND INFECTION CONTROL (23 Questions)
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient with dysphagia who has difficulty
swallowing whole tablets. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
B. Place the medication under the patient's tongue for sublingual absorption.
C. Check if the medication is available in liquid form or can be crushed.
D. Delay the medication until the speech therapist evaluates the patient.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patient safety is the priority when administering medications to a patient with
dysphagia. [CORRECT] Option C is correct because the nurse must first verify if the medication
can be crushed or if a liquid alternative exists; some medications (e.g., extended-release, enteric-
coated) should never be crushed as it alters absorption and can cause toxicity. Option A is
incorrect because crushing medications without verification can cause harm. Option B is
incorrect because not all medications are designed for sublingual administration. Option D is
incorrect because delaying necessary medications without exploring alternatives compromises
patient care.
Q2: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a wrist restraint. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Secure the restraint ties to the bed side rails.
B. Ensure two fingers fit between the restraint and the client's skin.
C. Remove the restraint every 4 hours to assess skin integrity.
D. Check on the client every 15 minutes while restrained.
E. Obtain a prescription within 1 hour of application.
Correct Answer: B, D, E
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Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B ensures adequate circulation. Option D ensures frequent
assessment of neurovascular status and safety. Option E is a legal requirement; restraints must be
time-limited and prescribed by a provider. Option A is incorrect because tying restraints to side
rails causes injury if the rail is lowered. Option C is incorrect; restraints should be removed every
2 hours (or per facility policy) for range of motion and toileting, not 4 hours.
Q3: A nurse enters a client's room and sees a fire in the trash can. Rank the following actions in
the order the nurse should perform them. (Place the steps in the correct order.)
A. Extinguish the fire.
B. Pull the alarm.
C. Rescue the client.
D. Confine the fire.
Correct Answer: C, B, D, A
Rationale: The nurse should follow the RACE protocol. [CORRECT] R (Rescue) is first: remove
the client from immediate danger (C). A (Alarm) is second: activate the emergency response
system (B). C (Confine) is third: close doors to contain the fire (D). E (Extinguish) is last: use the
fire extinguisher if safe to do so (A).
Q4: A nurse is teaching a client about home oxygen safety. Which of the following statements by
the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will keep my oxygen tank away from heat sources."
B. "I can use my electric blanket while the oxygen is running."
C. "I will post 'No Smoking' signs in my home."
D. "I will check the cords on my oxygen concentrator for fraying."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Oxygen supports combustion. Electric blankets create heat and potential
sparks, posing a significant fire hazard. The client should avoid using electric devices that
generate heat or sparks near oxygen. Options A, C, and D are correct safety measures.
Q5: A nurse is caring for a client on airborne precautions for tuberculosis. Which of the
following personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don before entering the room?
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A. Surgical mask and goggles.
B. N95 respirator and gloves.
C. N95 respirator, gown, and gloves.
D. Surgical mask, gown, and gloves.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. [CORRECT] The nurse requires an N95
respirator (fitted) to filter out small particles, along with a gown and gloves to prevent
contamination of clothing and transmission. A surgical mask (Options A and D) does not provide
adequate filtration against airborne particles like TB.
Q6: A nurse is performing hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub. Which of the
following actions indicates proper technique?
A. Applying the product to dry hands.
B. Rubbing hands together for 10 seconds.
C. Allowing the hands to air dry completely before touching the client.
D. Washing hands with soap and water immediately after applying the rub.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Hands must remain wet with the product for the duration of the rub
(typically 15-30 seconds) and allowed to air dry completely to ensure the antiseptic effect.
Option A is correct technique (hands should be dry), but Option C is the critical final step for
efficacy. Option B is too short. Option D negates the use of the rub.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for falls. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a room farthest from the nursing station.
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position with wheels locked.
C. Ensure the client is wearing non-skid footwear.
D. Raise all four side rails at night.
E. Use a movement sensor alarm.
Correct Answer: B, C, E
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Rationale: [CORRECT] Keeping the bed low (B) prevents injury from falls. Non-skid footwear
(C) prevents slipping. Sensor alarms (E) alert staff when a high-risk client attempts to get up.
Option A is incorrect; clients at risk should be near the nursing station for closer observation.
Option D is incorrect; raising all four side rails is considered a restraint and can increase the risk
of injury if the client attempts to climb over them.
Q8: A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions
maintains surgical asepsis?
A. Holding the catheter 2 inches from the tip.
B. Placing the sterile drape with the shiny side down.
C. Pouring sterile saline into the syringe before opening the catheter kit.
D. Keeping the field in view at eye level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: [CORRECT] The nurse must keep the sterile field in view at all times to ensure no
contamination occurs. Option A is incorrect; the catheter should be held near the hub, but the tip
must remain sterile—handling near the tip risks contamination. Option B is incorrect; the shiny
side (plastic) usually faces up or away depending on the drape type, but typically the absorbent
side is down. Option C is incorrect; saline is poured after opening the kit onto the sterile field.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following interventions
reduces the risk of exposure to hazardous drugs?
A. Crushing the medication tablet to improve absorption.
B. Wearing double gloves and a non-vented gown.
C. Disposing of IV tubing in the regular trash.
D. Administering the medication in a regular patient room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Chemotherapy agents are hazardous. Double gloving and a non-vented
gown protect the nurse from absorption through the skin. Option A is incorrect; crushing chemo
tablets creates dust and increases exposure risk. Option C is incorrect; equipment must be
disposed of in hazardous waste containers. Option D depends on the specific drug, but often
specific precautions are needed.
ATI FUNDAMENTALS FOR NURSING EDITION 11.0
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 Well Sorted Questions and
Answers | Graded A+ Complete Questions and Answers
Graded A+ Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: SAFETY AND INFECTION CONTROL (23 Questions)
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a patient with dysphagia who has difficulty
swallowing whole tablets. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
B. Place the medication under the patient's tongue for sublingual absorption.
C. Check if the medication is available in liquid form or can be crushed.
D. Delay the medication until the speech therapist evaluates the patient.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Patient safety is the priority when administering medications to a patient with
dysphagia. [CORRECT] Option C is correct because the nurse must first verify if the medication
can be crushed or if a liquid alternative exists; some medications (e.g., extended-release, enteric-
coated) should never be crushed as it alters absorption and can cause toxicity. Option A is
incorrect because crushing medications without verification can cause harm. Option B is
incorrect because not all medications are designed for sublingual administration. Option D is
incorrect because delaying necessary medications without exploring alternatives compromises
patient care.
Q2: A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for a wrist restraint. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Secure the restraint ties to the bed side rails.
B. Ensure two fingers fit between the restraint and the client's skin.
C. Remove the restraint every 4 hours to assess skin integrity.
D. Check on the client every 15 minutes while restrained.
E. Obtain a prescription within 1 hour of application.
Correct Answer: B, D, E
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Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B ensures adequate circulation. Option D ensures frequent
assessment of neurovascular status and safety. Option E is a legal requirement; restraints must be
time-limited and prescribed by a provider. Option A is incorrect because tying restraints to side
rails causes injury if the rail is lowered. Option C is incorrect; restraints should be removed every
2 hours (or per facility policy) for range of motion and toileting, not 4 hours.
Q3: A nurse enters a client's room and sees a fire in the trash can. Rank the following actions in
the order the nurse should perform them. (Place the steps in the correct order.)
A. Extinguish the fire.
B. Pull the alarm.
C. Rescue the client.
D. Confine the fire.
Correct Answer: C, B, D, A
Rationale: The nurse should follow the RACE protocol. [CORRECT] R (Rescue) is first: remove
the client from immediate danger (C). A (Alarm) is second: activate the emergency response
system (B). C (Confine) is third: close doors to contain the fire (D). E (Extinguish) is last: use the
fire extinguisher if safe to do so (A).
Q4: A nurse is teaching a client about home oxygen safety. Which of the following statements by
the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will keep my oxygen tank away from heat sources."
B. "I can use my electric blanket while the oxygen is running."
C. "I will post 'No Smoking' signs in my home."
D. "I will check the cords on my oxygen concentrator for fraying."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Oxygen supports combustion. Electric blankets create heat and potential
sparks, posing a significant fire hazard. The client should avoid using electric devices that
generate heat or sparks near oxygen. Options A, C, and D are correct safety measures.
Q5: A nurse is caring for a client on airborne precautions for tuberculosis. Which of the
following personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse don before entering the room?
,3
A. Surgical mask and goggles.
B. N95 respirator and gloves.
C. N95 respirator, gown, and gloves.
D. Surgical mask, gown, and gloves.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. [CORRECT] The nurse requires an N95
respirator (fitted) to filter out small particles, along with a gown and gloves to prevent
contamination of clothing and transmission. A surgical mask (Options A and D) does not provide
adequate filtration against airborne particles like TB.
Q6: A nurse is performing hand hygiene using an alcohol-based hand rub. Which of the
following actions indicates proper technique?
A. Applying the product to dry hands.
B. Rubbing hands together for 10 seconds.
C. Allowing the hands to air dry completely before touching the client.
D. Washing hands with soap and water immediately after applying the rub.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Hands must remain wet with the product for the duration of the rub
(typically 15-30 seconds) and allowed to air dry completely to ensure the antiseptic effect.
Option A is correct technique (hands should be dry), but Option C is the critical final step for
efficacy. Option B is too short. Option D negates the use of the rub.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for falls. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place the client in a room farthest from the nursing station.
B. Keep the bed in the lowest position with wheels locked.
C. Ensure the client is wearing non-skid footwear.
D. Raise all four side rails at night.
E. Use a movement sensor alarm.
Correct Answer: B, C, E
, 4
Rationale: [CORRECT] Keeping the bed low (B) prevents injury from falls. Non-skid footwear
(C) prevents slipping. Sensor alarms (E) alert staff when a high-risk client attempts to get up.
Option A is incorrect; clients at risk should be near the nursing station for closer observation.
Option D is incorrect; raising all four side rails is considered a restraint and can increase the risk
of injury if the client attempts to climb over them.
Q8: A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions
maintains surgical asepsis?
A. Holding the catheter 2 inches from the tip.
B. Placing the sterile drape with the shiny side down.
C. Pouring sterile saline into the syringe before opening the catheter kit.
D. Keeping the field in view at eye level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: [CORRECT] The nurse must keep the sterile field in view at all times to ensure no
contamination occurs. Option A is incorrect; the catheter should be held near the hub, but the tip
must remain sterile—handling near the tip risks contamination. Option B is incorrect; the shiny
side (plastic) usually faces up or away depending on the drape type, but typically the absorbent
side is down. Option C is incorrect; saline is poured after opening the kit onto the sterile field.
Q9: A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following interventions
reduces the risk of exposure to hazardous drugs?
A. Crushing the medication tablet to improve absorption.
B. Wearing double gloves and a non-vented gown.
C. Disposing of IV tubing in the regular trash.
D. Administering the medication in a regular patient room.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Chemotherapy agents are hazardous. Double gloving and a non-vented
gown protect the nurse from absorption through the skin. Option A is incorrect; crushing chemo
tablets creates dust and increases exposure risk. Option C is incorrect; equipment must be
disposed of in hazardous waste containers. Option D depends on the specific drug, but often
specific precautions are needed.
