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NURS 5432 Family Nurse Practitioner I Midterm Exam Questions and Verified Answers with Rationales – University of Texas Arlington – Updated 2026/2027 Test Bank & Study Guide – Instant Download

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This document contains NURS 5432 Family Nurse Practitioner I midterm exam questions with 100% verified answers and detailed rationales from the University of Texas at Arlington. The material focuses on primary care and family practice clinical scenarios, including iron deficiency anemia diagnosis, adult immunization guidelines, pediatric infectious diseases such as scarlet fever, medication monitoring for heart failure, and acute abdominal pain conditions such as appendicitis. The questions are presented in a clear exam-style format designed to help nurse practitioner students strengthen diagnostic reasoning and clinical decision-making skills commonly tested in FNP courses. This resource functions as a test bank, practice exam, and comprehensive study guide for students preparing for the NURS 5432 Family I midterm exam during the 2026/2027 academic year.

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NURS 5432 FAMILY I MIDTERM EXAM
UNIVERSITY OF TEXAS ARLINGTON
QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT




1. A 32-year-old female presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath
on exertion. Lab results reveal hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL and MCV of 72 fL.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
Answer: A. Iron deficiency anemia
Rationale: Microcytic anemia (MCV <80 fL) with fatigue and pallor is most
commonly due to iron deficiency, often from menstrual blood loss or inadequate
dietary intake.
2. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for all adults at age 50 and
older to prevent shingles?
A. Zostavax
B. Shingrix
C. Varivax
D. MMR
Answer: B. Shingrix
Rationale: Shingrix is the preferred recombinant zoster vaccine for adults ≥50
years to prevent shingles and postherpetic neuralgia.

, 3. A 5-year-old child presents with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and a
“strawberry tongue.” Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Kawasaki disease
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
Answer: A. Scarlet fever
Rationale: Scarlet fever is caused by Group A Streptococcus and presents with
fever, sore throat, and characteristic “strawberry tongue.”
4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab
value should the nurse practitioner monitor closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
Answer: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide can cause hypokalemia; monitoring
potassium is essential to prevent arrhythmias.
5. A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset right lower quadrant
abdominal pain and nausea. Pregnancy test is negative. Which condition
should the nurse practitioner suspect first?
A. Appendicitis
B. Ovarian cyst rupture
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Urinary tract infection
Answer: A. Appendicitis
Rationale: Sudden RLQ pain with nausea in a nonpregnant woman is most
consistent with acute appendicitis. Ovarian cyst rupture is possible but often
associated with a history of similar episodes.

, 6. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a patient with
chronic kidney disease stage 3?
A. High-protein diet
B. Low-sodium diet
C. High-phosphate diet
D. High-potassium diet
Answer: B. Low-sodium diet
Rationale: Limiting sodium helps manage hypertension and fluid retention, which
are common complications of chronic kidney disease.
7. A 45-year-old patient presents for a routine exam. Which screening test is
recommended for colorectal cancer in average-risk adults?
A. Colonoscopy every 10 years
B. FOBT annually
C. FIT test annually
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale: Colonoscopy every 10 years, fecal occult blood test (FOBT) annually,
or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) annually are all acceptable screening methods
for average-risk adults.
8. A patient with type 2 diabetes presents with a fasting glucose of 160 mg/dL.
Which intervention is appropriate?
A. Start insulin therapy immediately
B. Recommend lifestyle modification and oral hypoglycemic
C. Repeat fasting glucose in 1 year
D. No intervention needed
Answer: B. Recommend lifestyle modification and oral hypoglycemic
Rationale: Initial management of type 2 diabetes often includes lifestyle
modifications and metformin unless contraindicated.

, 9. A 2-year-old child presents with a barking cough worse at night and
inspiratory stridor. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Croup (laryngotracheitis)
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pertussis
Answer: B. Croup (laryngotracheitis)
Rationale: Barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and nocturnal worsening are classic
signs of viral croup in young children.
10. Which of the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Methyldopa
B. Labetalol
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Nifedipine
Answer: C. ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause fetal renal dysplasia and are contraindicated
in pregnancy; methyldopa and labetalol are preferred.


11. A patient presents with persistent fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.
Which lab test is most appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
A. Serum TSH
B. Serum cortisol
C. Serum ACTH
D. Serum free T3
Answer: A. Serum TSH
Rationale: Symptoms suggest hypothyroidism; TSH is the first-line screening test.
12. A 16-year-old presents with primary amenorrhea. Which condition should
be assessed first?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hyperprolactinemia

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