ATI RN LEADERSHIP PROCTORED NGN EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. A charge nurse is assigning tasks to a newly licensed RN and an experienced LPN.
Which client should the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who requires initial admission assessment
B. A client who needs discharge teaching for new insulin therapy
C. A client who requires reinforcement of teaching about wound care
D. A client who has unstable vital signs
Answer: C
Rationale: LPNs can reinforce teaching but cannot perform initial teaching, admission
assessments, or manage unstable clients.
2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with COPD who reports increased dyspnea
B. A client with a fracture who reports pain 6/10
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance to the bathroom
Answer: A
Rationale: Increased dyspnea indicates potential airway compromise and takes priority under
ABC principles.
3. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. What is the primary purpose of an
incident report?
A. To discipline the nurse involved
B. To document in the client’s medical record
C. To improve quality of care
D. To notify the client’s family
Answer: C
Rationale: Incident reports are used for risk management and quality improvement, not for
punishment or chart documentation.
4. A nurse overhears a colleague discussing a client’s condition in the elevator. What is the
nurse’s best action?
A. Ignore the behavior
B. Report immediately to the board of nursing
,C. Join the conversation
D. Remind the colleague about HIPAA regulations
Answer: D
Rationale: The appropriate first step is to address the issue directly and professionally to prevent
further breach.
5. Which task is appropriate for a UAP?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Assessing a surgical incision
C. Measuring intake and output
D. Providing discharge teaching
Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as measuring intake and output.
6. A nurse is delegating care to a UAP. Which statement indicates understanding of
delegation principles?
A. “I remain responsible for the client’s outcome.”
B. “The UAP is accountable for the assessment.”
C. “I can delegate nursing judgment.”
D. “Delegation transfers liability.”
Answer: A
Rationale: The RN retains accountability for client outcomes even after delegation.
7. A nurse is prioritizing care using Maslow’s hierarchy. Which need is the highest
priority?
A. Self-esteem
B. Safety
C. Physiological
D. Love and belonging
Answer: C
Rationale: Physiological needs such as oxygenation and circulation are highest priority.
8. A nurse suspects substance use in a colleague. What is the first action?
A. Confront the colleague publicly
B. Document specific observations
C. Call law enforcement
D. Ignore the suspicion
,Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation of objective observations is the first step before reporting through
proper channels.
9. A client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. What principle supports the
client’s decision?
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Fidelity
D. Autonomy
Answer: D
Rationale: Autonomy supports a client’s right to refuse treatment.
10. A nurse manager uses participative leadership. Which behavior reflects this style?
A. Making decisions independently
B. Encouraging staff input in decision-making
C. Strict rule enforcement
D. Avoiding conflict
Answer: B
Rationale: Participative leaders involve staff in decision-making.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with sudden chest pain and hypotension. What action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Call the rapid response team
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
D. Notify the charge nurse
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden instability requires activation of emergency response.
12. A nurse delegates ambulation to a UAP. Which situation requires the nurse to
intervene?
A. The UAP reports dizziness during ambulation
B. The client walks 20 feet
C. The UAP documents the distance
D. The client wears non-skid socks
Answer: A
Rationale: Dizziness indicates potential safety risk requiring RN assessment.
, 13. Which client should the nurse assign to the most experienced RN?
A. A stable postoperative day 2 client
B. A client receiving routine IV antibiotics
C. A client with new onset atrial fibrillation
D. A client ready for discharge
Answer: C
Rationale: New onset arrhythmia requires advanced assessment skills.
14. In a conflict between two nurses, what is the best initial approach?
A. Ignore the conflict
B. Encourage open discussion
C. Issue written warnings
D. Transfer one nurse
Answer: B
Rationale: Open communication is the first step in conflict resolution.
15. A nurse identifies a medication error after administration. What is the first action?
A. Document the incident report
B. Assess the client
C. Notify the provider
D. Inform the nurse manager
Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety and assessment are always the first priority.
16. Which quality improvement model focuses on continuous small changes?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Six Sigma
C. Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA)
D. Benchmarking
Answer: C
Rationale: PDSA cycles focus on continuous quality improvement.
17. A nurse receives change-of-shift report. Which client should be assessed first?
A. Client with potassium 2.9 mEq/L
B. Client with hemoglobin 11 g/dL
C. Client with glucose 160 mg/dL
D. Client with BP 130/80
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. A charge nurse is assigning tasks to a newly licensed RN and an experienced LPN.
Which client should the charge nurse assign to the LPN?
A. A client who requires initial admission assessment
B. A client who needs discharge teaching for new insulin therapy
C. A client who requires reinforcement of teaching about wound care
D. A client who has unstable vital signs
Answer: C
Rationale: LPNs can reinforce teaching but cannot perform initial teaching, admission
assessments, or manage unstable clients.
2. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with COPD who reports increased dyspnea
B. A client with a fracture who reports pain 6/10
C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance to the bathroom
Answer: A
Rationale: Increased dyspnea indicates potential airway compromise and takes priority under
ABC principles.
3. A nurse manager is reviewing incident reports. What is the primary purpose of an
incident report?
A. To discipline the nurse involved
B. To document in the client’s medical record
C. To improve quality of care
D. To notify the client’s family
Answer: C
Rationale: Incident reports are used for risk management and quality improvement, not for
punishment or chart documentation.
4. A nurse overhears a colleague discussing a client’s condition in the elevator. What is the
nurse’s best action?
A. Ignore the behavior
B. Report immediately to the board of nursing
,C. Join the conversation
D. Remind the colleague about HIPAA regulations
Answer: D
Rationale: The appropriate first step is to address the issue directly and professionally to prevent
further breach.
5. Which task is appropriate for a UAP?
A. Administering oral medications
B. Assessing a surgical incision
C. Measuring intake and output
D. Providing discharge teaching
Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks such as measuring intake and output.
6. A nurse is delegating care to a UAP. Which statement indicates understanding of
delegation principles?
A. “I remain responsible for the client’s outcome.”
B. “The UAP is accountable for the assessment.”
C. “I can delegate nursing judgment.”
D. “Delegation transfers liability.”
Answer: A
Rationale: The RN retains accountability for client outcomes even after delegation.
7. A nurse is prioritizing care using Maslow’s hierarchy. Which need is the highest
priority?
A. Self-esteem
B. Safety
C. Physiological
D. Love and belonging
Answer: C
Rationale: Physiological needs such as oxygenation and circulation are highest priority.
8. A nurse suspects substance use in a colleague. What is the first action?
A. Confront the colleague publicly
B. Document specific observations
C. Call law enforcement
D. Ignore the suspicion
,Answer: B
Rationale: Documentation of objective observations is the first step before reporting through
proper channels.
9. A client refuses a blood transfusion for religious reasons. What principle supports the
client’s decision?
A. Beneficence
B. Justice
C. Fidelity
D. Autonomy
Answer: D
Rationale: Autonomy supports a client’s right to refuse treatment.
10. A nurse manager uses participative leadership. Which behavior reflects this style?
A. Making decisions independently
B. Encouraging staff input in decision-making
C. Strict rule enforcement
D. Avoiding conflict
Answer: B
Rationale: Participative leaders involve staff in decision-making.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with sudden chest pain and hypotension. What action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Call the rapid response team
C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
D. Notify the charge nurse
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden instability requires activation of emergency response.
12. A nurse delegates ambulation to a UAP. Which situation requires the nurse to
intervene?
A. The UAP reports dizziness during ambulation
B. The client walks 20 feet
C. The UAP documents the distance
D. The client wears non-skid socks
Answer: A
Rationale: Dizziness indicates potential safety risk requiring RN assessment.
, 13. Which client should the nurse assign to the most experienced RN?
A. A stable postoperative day 2 client
B. A client receiving routine IV antibiotics
C. A client with new onset atrial fibrillation
D. A client ready for discharge
Answer: C
Rationale: New onset arrhythmia requires advanced assessment skills.
14. In a conflict between two nurses, what is the best initial approach?
A. Ignore the conflict
B. Encourage open discussion
C. Issue written warnings
D. Transfer one nurse
Answer: B
Rationale: Open communication is the first step in conflict resolution.
15. A nurse identifies a medication error after administration. What is the first action?
A. Document the incident report
B. Assess the client
C. Notify the provider
D. Inform the nurse manager
Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety and assessment are always the first priority.
16. Which quality improvement model focuses on continuous small changes?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Six Sigma
C. Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA)
D. Benchmarking
Answer: C
Rationale: PDSA cycles focus on continuous quality improvement.
17. A nurse receives change-of-shift report. Which client should be assessed first?
A. Client with potassium 2.9 mEq/L
B. Client with hemoglobin 11 g/dL
C. Client with glucose 160 mg/dL
D. Client with BP 130/80
