NURS 617 PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS REVIEW EXAM |
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS
PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ |
LATEST EXAM
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking furosemide. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “I will take it with my evening meal.”
B. “I should limit my potassium-rich foods.”
C. “I will take it in the morning.”
D. “I don’t need to monitor my weight.”
Answer: C. “I will take it in the morning.” – Taking furosemide in the morning reduces
nighttime diuresis and prevents sleep disruption.
2. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Lactic acidosis – Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, especially in
patients with renal impairment.
3. A patient on digoxin shows nausea, visual changes, and confusion. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Increase the digoxin dose
B. Hold the medication and check serum levels
C. Encourage more fluid intake
D. Administer vitamin K
Answer: B. Hold the medication and check serum levels – These are classic signs of
digoxin toxicity and require immediate assessment.
4. Which medication is first-line for treating hypertension in a patient with diabetes?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Thiazide diuretic
Answer: B. ACE inhibitor – ACE inhibitors protect the kidneys in diabetic patients while
lowering blood pressure.
5. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which lab should the nurse monitor?
A. AST/ALT
B. BUN/Creatinine
C. INR
, D. WBC count
Answer: A. AST/ALT – Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests should be
monitored.
6. Which medication class is most likely to cause orthostatic hypotension in elderly
patients?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Alpha-blockers
C. Anticholinergics
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B. Alpha-blockers – They relax vascular smooth muscle, increasing risk of
postural hypotension.
7. A patient is taking warfarin. Which food should the nurse instruct the patient to consume
consistently?
A. Spinach
B. Grapefruit
C. Bananas
D. Tomatoes
Answer: A. Spinach – Consistent vitamin K intake is necessary to maintain therapeutic
INR levels.
8. Which symptom indicates hypoglycemia in a patient taking insulin?
A. Polyuria
B. Tremors and sweating
C. Weight gain
D. Fatigue
Answer: B. Tremors and sweating – These are adrenergic signs of low blood glucose.
9. A patient is prescribed albuterol. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should take it daily even if I feel fine.”
B. “I will use it before exercise if I have asthma symptoms.”
C. “I should avoid using a spacer.”
D. “I will take it at bedtime only.”
Answer: B. “I will use it before exercise if I have asthma symptoms.” – Albuterol is a
short-acting bronchodilator used as needed for symptom relief or before activity that
triggers asthma.
10. A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse’s
priority assessment?
A. Blood pressure
B. Liver enzymes
C. Blood glucose
D. Respiratory rate
Answer: A. Blood pressure – Erythropoietin can increase blood pressure; monitoring is
essential to prevent complications.
,11. A patient is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia – Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, which can
lead to low potassium levels.
12. A patient taking levothyroxine asks when to take the medication. What is the best
response?
A. With lunch
B. At bedtime
C. In the morning on an empty stomach
D. With dinner
Answer: C. In the morning on an empty stomach – Levothyroxine absorption is best when
taken on an empty stomach, typically 30–60 minutes before breakfast.
13. A patient is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which adverse effect
should the nurse teach the patient to monitor?
A. Hypertension
B. Sexual dysfunction
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Sexual dysfunction – SSRIs commonly cause sexual side effects, including
decreased libido and difficulty achieving orgasm.
14. Which medication is commonly prescribed for acute gout attacks?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B. Colchicine – Colchicine is used to relieve acute gout flares by reducing
inflammation.
15. A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which lab should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer: B. Potassium – Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead
to hyperkalemia.
16. A patient taking digoxin has a serum level of 2.5 ng/mL. What action should the nurse
take?
, A. Administer the next dose as scheduled
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Monitor heart rate only
Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider – Digoxin toxicity occurs at
levels >2 ng/mL and requires immediate action.
17. A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin for angina. Which statement indicates correct
understanding?
A. “I should swallow the tablet whole.”
B. “I can take a new tablet every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3 doses.”
C. “I should take it with food.”
D. “I should crush the tablet before taking it.”
Answer: B. “I can take a new tablet every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3 doses.” –
Sublingual nitroglycerin can be repeated every 5 minutes, maximum of 3 doses in 15
minutes.
18. A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which adverse effect should the nurse teach the
patient to report immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Angioedema
D. Headache
Answer: C. Angioedema – ACE inhibitors can rarely cause life-threatening angioedema,
which requires immediate attention.
19. A patient is prescribed insulin glargine. How often should this medication be
administered?
A. Twice daily with meals
B. Once daily at the same time each day
C. Only when blood glucose is elevated
D. Every 4–6 hours
Answer: B. Once daily at the same time each day – Insulin glargine is a long-acting
insulin, usually given once daily for consistent basal glucose control.
20. A patient taking omeprazole for GERD asks how it works. What is the best response?
A. “It neutralizes stomach acid immediately.”
B. “It reduces acid secretion by blocking the proton pump in the stomach.”
C. “It coats the stomach lining for protection.”
D. “It increases stomach motility.”
Answer: B. “It reduces acid secretion by blocking the proton pump in the stomach.” –
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases acid production.
21. A patient is prescribed morphine. Which side effect is most important to monitor
initially?
A. Constipation
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS
PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM ALREADY GRADED A+ |
LATEST EXAM
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about taking furosemide. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “I will take it with my evening meal.”
B. “I should limit my potassium-rich foods.”
C. “I will take it in the morning.”
D. “I don’t need to monitor my weight.”
Answer: C. “I will take it in the morning.” – Taking furosemide in the morning reduces
nighttime diuresis and prevents sleep disruption.
2. A patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Lactic acidosis – Metformin can rarely cause lactic acidosis, especially in
patients with renal impairment.
3. A patient on digoxin shows nausea, visual changes, and confusion. What is the nurse’s
priority action?
A. Increase the digoxin dose
B. Hold the medication and check serum levels
C. Encourage more fluid intake
D. Administer vitamin K
Answer: B. Hold the medication and check serum levels – These are classic signs of
digoxin toxicity and require immediate assessment.
4. Which medication is first-line for treating hypertension in a patient with diabetes?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Thiazide diuretic
Answer: B. ACE inhibitor – ACE inhibitors protect the kidneys in diabetic patients while
lowering blood pressure.
5. A patient is prescribed atorvastatin. Which lab should the nurse monitor?
A. AST/ALT
B. BUN/Creatinine
C. INR
, D. WBC count
Answer: A. AST/ALT – Statins can cause hepatotoxicity, so liver function tests should be
monitored.
6. Which medication class is most likely to cause orthostatic hypotension in elderly
patients?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Alpha-blockers
C. Anticholinergics
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B. Alpha-blockers – They relax vascular smooth muscle, increasing risk of
postural hypotension.
7. A patient is taking warfarin. Which food should the nurse instruct the patient to consume
consistently?
A. Spinach
B. Grapefruit
C. Bananas
D. Tomatoes
Answer: A. Spinach – Consistent vitamin K intake is necessary to maintain therapeutic
INR levels.
8. Which symptom indicates hypoglycemia in a patient taking insulin?
A. Polyuria
B. Tremors and sweating
C. Weight gain
D. Fatigue
Answer: B. Tremors and sweating – These are adrenergic signs of low blood glucose.
9. A patient is prescribed albuterol. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should take it daily even if I feel fine.”
B. “I will use it before exercise if I have asthma symptoms.”
C. “I should avoid using a spacer.”
D. “I will take it at bedtime only.”
Answer: B. “I will use it before exercise if I have asthma symptoms.” – Albuterol is a
short-acting bronchodilator used as needed for symptom relief or before activity that
triggers asthma.
10. A patient with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse’s
priority assessment?
A. Blood pressure
B. Liver enzymes
C. Blood glucose
D. Respiratory rate
Answer: A. Blood pressure – Erythropoietin can increase blood pressure; monitoring is
essential to prevent complications.
,11. A patient is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which electrolyte imbalance should the
nurse monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia – Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, which can
lead to low potassium levels.
12. A patient taking levothyroxine asks when to take the medication. What is the best
response?
A. With lunch
B. At bedtime
C. In the morning on an empty stomach
D. With dinner
Answer: C. In the morning on an empty stomach – Levothyroxine absorption is best when
taken on an empty stomach, typically 30–60 minutes before breakfast.
13. A patient is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which adverse effect
should the nurse teach the patient to monitor?
A. Hypertension
B. Sexual dysfunction
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Sexual dysfunction – SSRIs commonly cause sexual side effects, including
decreased libido and difficulty achieving orgasm.
14. Which medication is commonly prescribed for acute gout attacks?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B. Colchicine – Colchicine is used to relieve acute gout flares by reducing
inflammation.
15. A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which lab should the nurse
monitor closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer: B. Potassium – Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead
to hyperkalemia.
16. A patient taking digoxin has a serum level of 2.5 ng/mL. What action should the nurse
take?
, A. Administer the next dose as scheduled
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Monitor heart rate only
Answer: B. Hold the medication and notify the provider – Digoxin toxicity occurs at
levels >2 ng/mL and requires immediate action.
17. A patient is prescribed nitroglycerin for angina. Which statement indicates correct
understanding?
A. “I should swallow the tablet whole.”
B. “I can take a new tablet every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3 doses.”
C. “I should take it with food.”
D. “I should crush the tablet before taking it.”
Answer: B. “I can take a new tablet every 5 minutes if pain persists, up to 3 doses.” –
Sublingual nitroglycerin can be repeated every 5 minutes, maximum of 3 doses in 15
minutes.
18. A patient is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which adverse effect should the nurse teach the
patient to report immediately?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Angioedema
D. Headache
Answer: C. Angioedema – ACE inhibitors can rarely cause life-threatening angioedema,
which requires immediate attention.
19. A patient is prescribed insulin glargine. How often should this medication be
administered?
A. Twice daily with meals
B. Once daily at the same time each day
C. Only when blood glucose is elevated
D. Every 4–6 hours
Answer: B. Once daily at the same time each day – Insulin glargine is a long-acting
insulin, usually given once daily for consistent basal glucose control.
20. A patient taking omeprazole for GERD asks how it works. What is the best response?
A. “It neutralizes stomach acid immediately.”
B. “It reduces acid secretion by blocking the proton pump in the stomach.”
C. “It coats the stomach lining for protection.”
D. “It increases stomach motility.”
Answer: B. “It reduces acid secretion by blocking the proton pump in the stomach.” –
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that decreases acid production.
21. A patient is prescribed morphine. Which side effect is most important to monitor
initially?
A. Constipation
