, TESTBANK FOR
Patient Transport: Medical Critical Care Wolfe
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
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If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
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, Chapter 1 - Test Bank
Q1. When caring for pediatric patients, it is important to consider what aspects in your
assessment? Consider the age-appropriate vital signs, communication techniques, and
comfort measures. Determine if the parent should accompany the child. Determine if physical
or chemical restraints are needed for safety. Determine what aspects of care can be avoided
to not upset the child.
1) Consider the age-appropriate vital signs, communication techniques, and comfort measures.
2) Determine if the parent should accompany the child.
3) Determine if physical or chemical restraints are needed for safety.
4) Determine what aspects of care can be avoided to not upset the child.
Q2. Pediatric patients can compensate until approximately ____________ of their total blood
volume has been lost. 60% 50% 40% 30%
1) 60%
2) 50%
3) 40%
4) 30%
Q3. It is important to remember that pediatric patients have all of the following unique tracheal
anatomical characteristics EXCEPT: A more anterior larynx. Smaller tonsils and adenoids.
Children less than 3 have a large and flexible epiglottis. Tracheal rings are narrower making
cricothyroidotomy difficult, thus needle cricothyroidotomy should be performed.
1) A more anterior larynx.
2) Smaller tonsils and adenoids.
3) Children less than 3 have a large and flexible epiglottis.
4) Tracheal rings are narrower making cricothyroidotomy difficult, thus needle cricothyroidotomy
should be performed.
Q4. The main cause of morbidity and mortality in critically ill or injured children is:
Exsanguination Sepsis Respiratory failure or arrest Cardiac arrest
1) Exsanguination
2) Sepsis
3) Respiratory failure or arrest
4) Cardiac arrest
Q5. In neonatal and pediatric patients, which advanced airway device is definitive in securing
a child’s airway? Laryngeal mask BiPap or CPap mask King tube Endotracheal tube
1) Laryngeal mask
2) BiPap or CPap mask
3) King tube
4) Endotracheal tube
Q6. The use of non-invasive ventilation along with frequent assessment of tolerance can help
reduce which potential complication? Ventilator-induced lung injury Aspiration pneumonia
Oxidative stress None of these
1) Ventilator-induced lung injury
, 2) Aspiration pneumonia
3) Oxidative stress
4) None of these
Q7. Intubating a pediatric patient makes it important for clinicians to hone their intubation
skills. Which of the following issues makes intubating children unique? The emotional toll of a
critically ill or injured child. Children will become bradycardic if prolonged intubation or multiple
attempts are performed. The risk of litigation for failed attempts. None of these are correct.
1) The emotional toll of a critically ill or injured child.
2) Children will become bradycardic if prolonged intubation or multiple attempts are performed.
3) The risk of litigation for failed attempts.
4) None of these are correct.
Q8. To mitigate the vagus nerve stimulation during intubation, what medication may be given?
Epinephrine Benadryl Atropine Lidocaine
1) Epinephrine
2) Benadryl
3) Atropine
4) Lidocaine
Q9. To ensure proper ET tube placement, what is the most definitive device to use?
Colorimetric CO2 Detector EtCO2 Capnography Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds Equal
chest rise Direct visualization of the ETT passing through the cords. Both A and B None of
these
1) Colorimetric CO2 Detector
2) EtCO2 Capnography
3) Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
4) Equal chest rise
5) Direct visualization of the ETT passing through the cords.
6) Both A and B
7) None of these
Q10. Surgical airways are rare in children. However, at what age can a surgical airway be
performed? > 5 years > 3 years > 7 years > 10 years
1) > 5 years
2) > 3 years
3) > 7 years
4) > 10 years
Q11. The vast majority of asthma exacerbations in children are due to: Second smoke Viral
infections Allergens Bacterial infections
1) Second smoke
2) Viral infections
3) Allergens
4) Bacterial infections
Q12. What is the most common bronchodilator/anticholinergic medication administered for
asthma in children? Albuterol/Ipratropium bromide Xopenex/Solumedrol Albuterol/Budesonide
None of these
, 1) Albuterol/Ipratropium bromide
2) Xopenex/Solumedrol
3) Albuterol/Budesonide
4) None of these
Q13. One mechanism used to safeguard crew member safety from possible exposure when
suctioning patients with COVID-19 is: N-95 mask Face shield Closed circuit ventilator and
in-line suctioning None of these
1) N-95 mask
2) Face shield
3) Closed circuit ventilator and in-line suctioning
4) None of these
Q14. Children that present with stridor and deep barking cough should have the following:
Remain in a position of comfort. Be kept calm. Receive minimal procedures. Have nothing
placed in the mouth. All of these are correct. None of these are correct.
1) Remain in a position of comfort.
2) Be kept calm.
3) Receive minimal procedures.
4) Have nothing placed in the mouth.
5) All of these are correct.
6) None of these are correct.
Q15. When administering medications for epiglottitis, which medication will have a more
immediate effect on epiglottal edema? Racemic epinephrine Solumedrol Dexamethasone
Ibuprofen
1) Racemic epinephrine
2) Solumedrol
3) Dexamethasone
4) Ibuprofen
Q16. After giving racemic epinephrine for croup, it is important to remember: It should be
followed up with a solumedrol dose. It may need to be repeated after 2 hours to prevent
rebound. The medication will work for 4-6 hours. It has an immediate effect and will continue
to work for 12 hours.
1) It should be followed up with a solumedrol dose.
2) It may need to be repeated after 2 hours to prevent rebound.
3) The medication will work for 4-6 hours.
4) It has an immediate effect and will continue to work for 12 hours.
Q17. Aside from the risk of asphyxiation from a foreign body, children who swallow objects
such as button batteries are at increased risk of: Esophageal erosion Caustic substance
necrosis Full thickness injuries All are correct
1) Esophageal erosion
2) Caustic substance necrosis
3) Full thickness injuries
4) All are correct
,Q18. Bronchiolitis is most commonly associated with Foreign body aspiration Asthma
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Aspiration pneumonia
1) Foreign body aspiration
2) Asthma
3) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
4) Aspiration pneumonia
Q19. Anaphylaxis must be recognized quickly along with the rapid administration of
epinephrine. However, what must the clinician consider along with the administration of this
medication? Subsequent doses may be required. Advanced airway management may be
needed. Expected needle cricothyroidotomy may be necessary. Use of capnography to detect
early ventilatory changes in the child. All of these are correct. None of these are correct.
1) Subsequent doses may be required.
2) Advanced airway management may be needed.
3) Expected needle cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
4) Use of capnography to detect early ventilatory changes in the child.
5) All of these are correct.
6) None of these are correct.
Q20. To treat hypoglycemia in children the dosing for dextrose is: 5 to 6 mL/kg of dextrose
15% 1 to 2 mL/kg of dextrose 10% 4 to 5 mL/kg of dextrose 5% 2 to 3 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
1) 5 to 6 mL/kg of dextrose 15%
2) 1 to 2 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
3) 4 to 5 mL/kg of dextrose 5%
4) 2 to 3 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
Q21. You are caring for a 7 year old female patient that has been drinking large amount of
water that has been forced by her parents. What is the underlying disorder caused by the
excess water consumption? hyponatremia hypoglycemia hypernatremia hypokalemia
1) hyponatremia
2) hypoglycemia
3) hypernatremia
4) hypokalemia
Q22. What is the cause of morbidity and mortality in pediatric patients with diabetic
ketoacidosis? Renal failure Cerebral edema Aspiration Respiratory arrest
1) Renal failure
2) Cerebral edema
3) Aspiration
4) Respiratory arrest
Q23. To prevent the risk of cerebral edema and herniation, fluid resuscitation must not go
beyond ___________________________in the first 4 hours of treatment. 10 – 20 mL/kg 20 –
30 mL/kg 30 – 40 mL/kg 40 – 50 mL/kg
1) 10 – 20 mL/kg
2) 20 – 30 mL/kg
3) 30 – 40 mL/kg
4) 40 – 50 mL/kg
,Q24. Treatment for myocarditis includes all of the following EXCEPT: Inotropes Afterload
reducers Insulin Diuretics
1) Inotropes
2) Afterload reducers
3) Insulin
4) Diuretics
, Chapter 2 - Test Bank
Q1. Patients that eligible to receive a ventricular assist device (VAD) must meet one of the
following criteria, EXCEPT: a bridge to recovery a bridge to more definitive therapy short-term
support (bridge to transplant) long-term support (destination therapy) all are correct
1) a bridge to recovery
2) a bridge to more definitive therapy
3) short-term support (bridge to transplant)
4) long-term support (destination therapy)
5) all are correct
Q2. All the following regarding patients that receive a total artificial heart (TAH) are true
EXCEPT these patients must: have a back-up driver should the primary driver fail; no
circulation will be provided for the patient. have medically refractory biventricular heart failure.
have enough space within the thoracic space to accommodate the pump. remain in the
hospital while the device is in place.
1) have a back-up driver should the primary driver fail; no circulation will be provided for the
patient.
2) have medically refractory biventricular heart failure.
3) have enough space within the thoracic space to accommodate the pump.
4) remain in the hospital while the device is in place.
Q3. Acute cardiogenic shock assist devices, such as ECMO, intra-aortic balloon pumps, etc.
are uniquely susceptible to which of the following secondary complications related to
anticoagulation therapy? HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) DIC (disseminated
intravascular coagulation) Acute liver failure Spontaneous pneumothorax
1) HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)
2) DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
3) Acute liver failure
4) Spontaneous pneumothorax
Q4. During diastole, the inflation of the intra-aortic ballon pump: decreases aortic diastolic
pressure. causes an effect called ventricular augmentation. increases oxygenated blood flow
into the coronaries. decreases myocardial oxygen supply.
1) decreases aortic diastolic pressure.
2) causes an effect called ventricular augmentation.
3) increases oxygenated blood flow into the coronaries.
4) decreases myocardial oxygen supply.
Q5. Which gas is used in the intra-aortic balloon pump to decrease the risk of embolism?
nitrogen helium oxygen carbon dioxide
1) nitrogen
2) helium
3) oxygen
4) carbon dioxide
,Q6. Both manual and automatic timing modes of the intra-aortic balloon pump have automatic
triggers which allows transport crews to inflate and deflate the balloon based upon patient
needs. deactivate the device and if it is no longer needed. focus on the patient, emergency
management and safety rather than the console. none of these are correct.
1) inflate and deflate the balloon based upon patient needs.
2) deactivate the device and if it is no longer needed.
3) focus on the patient, emergency management and safety rather than the console.
4) none of these are correct.
Q7. Assessing a patient with an intra-aortic balloon pump should include a thorough
neurologic assessment related to the potential migration of the intra-aortic balloon pump to
block blood flow to the: left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, and vessels of the
left arm. right subclavian artery and right carotid artery. both renal arteries. coronary arteries.
1) left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, and vessels of the left arm.
2) right subclavian artery and right carotid artery.
3) both renal arteries.
4) coronary arteries.
Q8. If oozing is noted at the insertion sight of the intra-aortic balloon catheter, the transport
crew should: increase the head of the bed of the patient to greater than 30 degrees. place a
bag of IV solution over the insertion site. apply firm direct pressure over the insertion site.
place an ice pack over the insertion site.
1) increase the head of the bed of the patient to greater than 30 degrees.
2) place a bag of IV solution over the insertion site.
3) apply firm direct pressure over the insertion site.
4) place an ice pack over the insertion site.
Q9. Patients that are undergoing extracorporeal membrane oxygenation should be monitored
for what complication? Oozing of blood or serosanguinous fluid around catheter insertion site.
Bleeding or swelling in the abdomen. Bleeding or blood noted in any drainage system, i.e.
urinary catheters. All are correct. None are correct.
1) Oozing of blood or serosanguinous fluid around catheter insertion site.
2) Bleeding or swelling in the abdomen.
3) Bleeding or blood noted in any drainage system, i.e. urinary catheters.
4) All are correct.
5) None are correct.
Q10. When transporting a patient on extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), you
notice the venous pressure (pVen) is -110mmHg. This number may indicate: hypertension or
fluid volume excess hypovolemia or vasodilation hyperoxia none of these
1) hypertension or fluid volume excess
2) hypovolemia or vasodilation
3) hyperoxia
4) none of these
Q11. You are transporting a patient on ECMO to a transplant center. The safety and weather
check prior to the departure shows freezing temperatures, but no precipitation for the next 24
hours. What other considerations should the flight crew make based upon this information?
, The transport should be changed to ground, patients cannot be flown with ECMO during times
of extreme cold. Additional equipment will be required, including an ECMO heater. No other
changes are required other than normal transport considerations. Patients on ECMO cannot
be flown due to altering pressures.
1) The transport should be changed to ground, patients cannot be flown with ECMO during times
of extreme cold.
2) Additional equipment will be required, including an ECMO heater.
3) No other changes are required other than normal transport considerations.
4) Patients on ECMO cannot be flown due to altering pressures.
Q12. The Impella® Heart Pump is indicated for what type of patients? Acute lung
disease/damage Cardiac arrest resuscitation Cardiogenic shock following cardiac surgery or
acute MI Is used only during surgery for heart/lung bypass
1) Acute lung disease/damage
2) Cardiac arrest resuscitation
3) Cardiogenic shock following cardiac surgery or acute MI
4) Is used only during surgery for heart/lung bypass
Q13. You are transporting a patient on the Impella® Heart Pump. You have an alarm sound
on the Impella®. The most common cause of these alarms is due to Reduced flow Clotting in
the tubing Loss of blood in the system Failure of the left ventricle
1) Reduced flow
2) Clotting in the tubing
3) Loss of blood in the system
4) Failure of the left ventricle
Q14. When transporting a patient with the Impella® Heart Pump, the P level may be adjusted
for which two situations? Suction events – the pump is offloading more blood than the amount
filling the ventricle. Cardiac arrest – the P level should be reduced to P-2. Hypoxic events –
the patient’s lungs have failed, or pulmonary edema has occurred. b and c a and b
1) Suction events – the pump is offloading more blood than the amount filling the ventricle.
2) Cardiac arrest – the P level should be reduced to P-2.
3) Hypoxic events – the patient’s lungs have failed, or pulmonary edema has occurred.
4) b and c
5) a and b
Q15. The Impella® Heart Pump consideration for transport includes all the following EXCEPT:
Do not raise the head of the bed above 30o. The Impella® Heart Pump should be plugging
into AC power as soon as possible. Reposition the catheter should suctioning occur. The
automated Impella controller (AIC) must be secured in the transport vehicle.
1) Do not raise the head of the bed above 30o.
2) The Impella® Heart Pump should be plugging into AC power as soon as possible.
3) Reposition the catheter should suctioning occur.
4) The automated Impella controller (AIC) must be secured in the transport vehicle.
Q16. CentriMag Blood Pumps are subject to ________________events which are indicated
by blood tubing chattering, presence of air in the tubing, and drops in pump flows. fluid volume
overload tubing leak pump failure suction
Patient Transport: Medical Critical Care Wolfe
Important Notes
The file includes the complete test bank, organized chapter by chapter.
A sample of selected pages has been provided for preview.
All available appendices and Excel files (if included in the original resources) are
provided.
We continuously update our files to ensure you receive the latest and most accurate
editions.
New editions are added regularly – stay connected for updates!
Purchase Guarantee
If you believe you have purchased the wrong file, don’t worry. Contact us anytime and we
will gladly replace it with the correct version.
Contact Email:
, Chapter 1 - Test Bank
Q1. When caring for pediatric patients, it is important to consider what aspects in your
assessment? Consider the age-appropriate vital signs, communication techniques, and
comfort measures. Determine if the parent should accompany the child. Determine if physical
or chemical restraints are needed for safety. Determine what aspects of care can be avoided
to not upset the child.
1) Consider the age-appropriate vital signs, communication techniques, and comfort measures.
2) Determine if the parent should accompany the child.
3) Determine if physical or chemical restraints are needed for safety.
4) Determine what aspects of care can be avoided to not upset the child.
Q2. Pediatric patients can compensate until approximately ____________ of their total blood
volume has been lost. 60% 50% 40% 30%
1) 60%
2) 50%
3) 40%
4) 30%
Q3. It is important to remember that pediatric patients have all of the following unique tracheal
anatomical characteristics EXCEPT: A more anterior larynx. Smaller tonsils and adenoids.
Children less than 3 have a large and flexible epiglottis. Tracheal rings are narrower making
cricothyroidotomy difficult, thus needle cricothyroidotomy should be performed.
1) A more anterior larynx.
2) Smaller tonsils and adenoids.
3) Children less than 3 have a large and flexible epiglottis.
4) Tracheal rings are narrower making cricothyroidotomy difficult, thus needle cricothyroidotomy
should be performed.
Q4. The main cause of morbidity and mortality in critically ill or injured children is:
Exsanguination Sepsis Respiratory failure or arrest Cardiac arrest
1) Exsanguination
2) Sepsis
3) Respiratory failure or arrest
4) Cardiac arrest
Q5. In neonatal and pediatric patients, which advanced airway device is definitive in securing
a child’s airway? Laryngeal mask BiPap or CPap mask King tube Endotracheal tube
1) Laryngeal mask
2) BiPap or CPap mask
3) King tube
4) Endotracheal tube
Q6. The use of non-invasive ventilation along with frequent assessment of tolerance can help
reduce which potential complication? Ventilator-induced lung injury Aspiration pneumonia
Oxidative stress None of these
1) Ventilator-induced lung injury
, 2) Aspiration pneumonia
3) Oxidative stress
4) None of these
Q7. Intubating a pediatric patient makes it important for clinicians to hone their intubation
skills. Which of the following issues makes intubating children unique? The emotional toll of a
critically ill or injured child. Children will become bradycardic if prolonged intubation or multiple
attempts are performed. The risk of litigation for failed attempts. None of these are correct.
1) The emotional toll of a critically ill or injured child.
2) Children will become bradycardic if prolonged intubation or multiple attempts are performed.
3) The risk of litigation for failed attempts.
4) None of these are correct.
Q8. To mitigate the vagus nerve stimulation during intubation, what medication may be given?
Epinephrine Benadryl Atropine Lidocaine
1) Epinephrine
2) Benadryl
3) Atropine
4) Lidocaine
Q9. To ensure proper ET tube placement, what is the most definitive device to use?
Colorimetric CO2 Detector EtCO2 Capnography Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds Equal
chest rise Direct visualization of the ETT passing through the cords. Both A and B None of
these
1) Colorimetric CO2 Detector
2) EtCO2 Capnography
3) Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
4) Equal chest rise
5) Direct visualization of the ETT passing through the cords.
6) Both A and B
7) None of these
Q10. Surgical airways are rare in children. However, at what age can a surgical airway be
performed? > 5 years > 3 years > 7 years > 10 years
1) > 5 years
2) > 3 years
3) > 7 years
4) > 10 years
Q11. The vast majority of asthma exacerbations in children are due to: Second smoke Viral
infections Allergens Bacterial infections
1) Second smoke
2) Viral infections
3) Allergens
4) Bacterial infections
Q12. What is the most common bronchodilator/anticholinergic medication administered for
asthma in children? Albuterol/Ipratropium bromide Xopenex/Solumedrol Albuterol/Budesonide
None of these
, 1) Albuterol/Ipratropium bromide
2) Xopenex/Solumedrol
3) Albuterol/Budesonide
4) None of these
Q13. One mechanism used to safeguard crew member safety from possible exposure when
suctioning patients with COVID-19 is: N-95 mask Face shield Closed circuit ventilator and
in-line suctioning None of these
1) N-95 mask
2) Face shield
3) Closed circuit ventilator and in-line suctioning
4) None of these
Q14. Children that present with stridor and deep barking cough should have the following:
Remain in a position of comfort. Be kept calm. Receive minimal procedures. Have nothing
placed in the mouth. All of these are correct. None of these are correct.
1) Remain in a position of comfort.
2) Be kept calm.
3) Receive minimal procedures.
4) Have nothing placed in the mouth.
5) All of these are correct.
6) None of these are correct.
Q15. When administering medications for epiglottitis, which medication will have a more
immediate effect on epiglottal edema? Racemic epinephrine Solumedrol Dexamethasone
Ibuprofen
1) Racemic epinephrine
2) Solumedrol
3) Dexamethasone
4) Ibuprofen
Q16. After giving racemic epinephrine for croup, it is important to remember: It should be
followed up with a solumedrol dose. It may need to be repeated after 2 hours to prevent
rebound. The medication will work for 4-6 hours. It has an immediate effect and will continue
to work for 12 hours.
1) It should be followed up with a solumedrol dose.
2) It may need to be repeated after 2 hours to prevent rebound.
3) The medication will work for 4-6 hours.
4) It has an immediate effect and will continue to work for 12 hours.
Q17. Aside from the risk of asphyxiation from a foreign body, children who swallow objects
such as button batteries are at increased risk of: Esophageal erosion Caustic substance
necrosis Full thickness injuries All are correct
1) Esophageal erosion
2) Caustic substance necrosis
3) Full thickness injuries
4) All are correct
,Q18. Bronchiolitis is most commonly associated with Foreign body aspiration Asthma
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) Aspiration pneumonia
1) Foreign body aspiration
2) Asthma
3) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
4) Aspiration pneumonia
Q19. Anaphylaxis must be recognized quickly along with the rapid administration of
epinephrine. However, what must the clinician consider along with the administration of this
medication? Subsequent doses may be required. Advanced airway management may be
needed. Expected needle cricothyroidotomy may be necessary. Use of capnography to detect
early ventilatory changes in the child. All of these are correct. None of these are correct.
1) Subsequent doses may be required.
2) Advanced airway management may be needed.
3) Expected needle cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
4) Use of capnography to detect early ventilatory changes in the child.
5) All of these are correct.
6) None of these are correct.
Q20. To treat hypoglycemia in children the dosing for dextrose is: 5 to 6 mL/kg of dextrose
15% 1 to 2 mL/kg of dextrose 10% 4 to 5 mL/kg of dextrose 5% 2 to 3 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
1) 5 to 6 mL/kg of dextrose 15%
2) 1 to 2 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
3) 4 to 5 mL/kg of dextrose 5%
4) 2 to 3 mL/kg of dextrose 10%
Q21. You are caring for a 7 year old female patient that has been drinking large amount of
water that has been forced by her parents. What is the underlying disorder caused by the
excess water consumption? hyponatremia hypoglycemia hypernatremia hypokalemia
1) hyponatremia
2) hypoglycemia
3) hypernatremia
4) hypokalemia
Q22. What is the cause of morbidity and mortality in pediatric patients with diabetic
ketoacidosis? Renal failure Cerebral edema Aspiration Respiratory arrest
1) Renal failure
2) Cerebral edema
3) Aspiration
4) Respiratory arrest
Q23. To prevent the risk of cerebral edema and herniation, fluid resuscitation must not go
beyond ___________________________in the first 4 hours of treatment. 10 – 20 mL/kg 20 –
30 mL/kg 30 – 40 mL/kg 40 – 50 mL/kg
1) 10 – 20 mL/kg
2) 20 – 30 mL/kg
3) 30 – 40 mL/kg
4) 40 – 50 mL/kg
,Q24. Treatment for myocarditis includes all of the following EXCEPT: Inotropes Afterload
reducers Insulin Diuretics
1) Inotropes
2) Afterload reducers
3) Insulin
4) Diuretics
, Chapter 2 - Test Bank
Q1. Patients that eligible to receive a ventricular assist device (VAD) must meet one of the
following criteria, EXCEPT: a bridge to recovery a bridge to more definitive therapy short-term
support (bridge to transplant) long-term support (destination therapy) all are correct
1) a bridge to recovery
2) a bridge to more definitive therapy
3) short-term support (bridge to transplant)
4) long-term support (destination therapy)
5) all are correct
Q2. All the following regarding patients that receive a total artificial heart (TAH) are true
EXCEPT these patients must: have a back-up driver should the primary driver fail; no
circulation will be provided for the patient. have medically refractory biventricular heart failure.
have enough space within the thoracic space to accommodate the pump. remain in the
hospital while the device is in place.
1) have a back-up driver should the primary driver fail; no circulation will be provided for the
patient.
2) have medically refractory biventricular heart failure.
3) have enough space within the thoracic space to accommodate the pump.
4) remain in the hospital while the device is in place.
Q3. Acute cardiogenic shock assist devices, such as ECMO, intra-aortic balloon pumps, etc.
are uniquely susceptible to which of the following secondary complications related to
anticoagulation therapy? HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia) DIC (disseminated
intravascular coagulation) Acute liver failure Spontaneous pneumothorax
1) HIT (heparin induced thrombocytopenia)
2) DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
3) Acute liver failure
4) Spontaneous pneumothorax
Q4. During diastole, the inflation of the intra-aortic ballon pump: decreases aortic diastolic
pressure. causes an effect called ventricular augmentation. increases oxygenated blood flow
into the coronaries. decreases myocardial oxygen supply.
1) decreases aortic diastolic pressure.
2) causes an effect called ventricular augmentation.
3) increases oxygenated blood flow into the coronaries.
4) decreases myocardial oxygen supply.
Q5. Which gas is used in the intra-aortic balloon pump to decrease the risk of embolism?
nitrogen helium oxygen carbon dioxide
1) nitrogen
2) helium
3) oxygen
4) carbon dioxide
,Q6. Both manual and automatic timing modes of the intra-aortic balloon pump have automatic
triggers which allows transport crews to inflate and deflate the balloon based upon patient
needs. deactivate the device and if it is no longer needed. focus on the patient, emergency
management and safety rather than the console. none of these are correct.
1) inflate and deflate the balloon based upon patient needs.
2) deactivate the device and if it is no longer needed.
3) focus on the patient, emergency management and safety rather than the console.
4) none of these are correct.
Q7. Assessing a patient with an intra-aortic balloon pump should include a thorough
neurologic assessment related to the potential migration of the intra-aortic balloon pump to
block blood flow to the: left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, and vessels of the
left arm. right subclavian artery and right carotid artery. both renal arteries. coronary arteries.
1) left subclavian artery, left common carotid artery, and vessels of the left arm.
2) right subclavian artery and right carotid artery.
3) both renal arteries.
4) coronary arteries.
Q8. If oozing is noted at the insertion sight of the intra-aortic balloon catheter, the transport
crew should: increase the head of the bed of the patient to greater than 30 degrees. place a
bag of IV solution over the insertion site. apply firm direct pressure over the insertion site.
place an ice pack over the insertion site.
1) increase the head of the bed of the patient to greater than 30 degrees.
2) place a bag of IV solution over the insertion site.
3) apply firm direct pressure over the insertion site.
4) place an ice pack over the insertion site.
Q9. Patients that are undergoing extracorporeal membrane oxygenation should be monitored
for what complication? Oozing of blood or serosanguinous fluid around catheter insertion site.
Bleeding or swelling in the abdomen. Bleeding or blood noted in any drainage system, i.e.
urinary catheters. All are correct. None are correct.
1) Oozing of blood or serosanguinous fluid around catheter insertion site.
2) Bleeding or swelling in the abdomen.
3) Bleeding or blood noted in any drainage system, i.e. urinary catheters.
4) All are correct.
5) None are correct.
Q10. When transporting a patient on extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), you
notice the venous pressure (pVen) is -110mmHg. This number may indicate: hypertension or
fluid volume excess hypovolemia or vasodilation hyperoxia none of these
1) hypertension or fluid volume excess
2) hypovolemia or vasodilation
3) hyperoxia
4) none of these
Q11. You are transporting a patient on ECMO to a transplant center. The safety and weather
check prior to the departure shows freezing temperatures, but no precipitation for the next 24
hours. What other considerations should the flight crew make based upon this information?
, The transport should be changed to ground, patients cannot be flown with ECMO during times
of extreme cold. Additional equipment will be required, including an ECMO heater. No other
changes are required other than normal transport considerations. Patients on ECMO cannot
be flown due to altering pressures.
1) The transport should be changed to ground, patients cannot be flown with ECMO during times
of extreme cold.
2) Additional equipment will be required, including an ECMO heater.
3) No other changes are required other than normal transport considerations.
4) Patients on ECMO cannot be flown due to altering pressures.
Q12. The Impella® Heart Pump is indicated for what type of patients? Acute lung
disease/damage Cardiac arrest resuscitation Cardiogenic shock following cardiac surgery or
acute MI Is used only during surgery for heart/lung bypass
1) Acute lung disease/damage
2) Cardiac arrest resuscitation
3) Cardiogenic shock following cardiac surgery or acute MI
4) Is used only during surgery for heart/lung bypass
Q13. You are transporting a patient on the Impella® Heart Pump. You have an alarm sound
on the Impella®. The most common cause of these alarms is due to Reduced flow Clotting in
the tubing Loss of blood in the system Failure of the left ventricle
1) Reduced flow
2) Clotting in the tubing
3) Loss of blood in the system
4) Failure of the left ventricle
Q14. When transporting a patient with the Impella® Heart Pump, the P level may be adjusted
for which two situations? Suction events – the pump is offloading more blood than the amount
filling the ventricle. Cardiac arrest – the P level should be reduced to P-2. Hypoxic events –
the patient’s lungs have failed, or pulmonary edema has occurred. b and c a and b
1) Suction events – the pump is offloading more blood than the amount filling the ventricle.
2) Cardiac arrest – the P level should be reduced to P-2.
3) Hypoxic events – the patient’s lungs have failed, or pulmonary edema has occurred.
4) b and c
5) a and b
Q15. The Impella® Heart Pump consideration for transport includes all the following EXCEPT:
Do not raise the head of the bed above 30o. The Impella® Heart Pump should be plugging
into AC power as soon as possible. Reposition the catheter should suctioning occur. The
automated Impella controller (AIC) must be secured in the transport vehicle.
1) Do not raise the head of the bed above 30o.
2) The Impella® Heart Pump should be plugging into AC power as soon as possible.
3) Reposition the catheter should suctioning occur.
4) The automated Impella controller (AIC) must be secured in the transport vehicle.
Q16. CentriMag Blood Pumps are subject to ________________events which are indicated
by blood tubing chattering, presence of air in the tubing, and drops in pump flows. fluid volume
overload tubing leak pump failure suction
