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NR 566 Final Exam: Questions & Answers(
Update) Advanced Pharmacology - Care of
the Family | Chamberlain University
NR 566 Final Exam Study Guide
Advanced Pharmacology - Care of the Family
This comprehensive guide contains 150 practice questions with correct
answers and detailed rationales to help you prepare for the final exam. The
content is organized by body system and therapeutic area as tested in the
course.
Table of Contents
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) & Reproductive Health (Questions 1-
25)
Women's Health & Hormonal Therapy (Questions 26-40)
Men's Health & Urology (Questions 41-50)
Cardiology & Anticoagulation (Questions 51-75)
Endocrinology: Diabetes Management (Questions 76-95)
Endocrinology: Thyroid & Other Disorders (Questions 96-105)
Neurology & Pain Management (Questions 106-125)
Psychiatry & Behavioral Health (Questions 126-140)
Respiratory & Allergy (Questions 141-150)
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) & Reproductive Health
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1. A 22-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and
cervical motion tenderness. She is diagnosed with Pelvic Inflammatory
Disease (PID). According to CDC guidelines, which outpatient regimen is
appropriate?
A. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once + Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 14 days ±
Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 14 days
B. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once + Metronidazole 2 grams PO once
C. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for 14 days
D. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days alone
Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended outpatient regimen for PID is a single IM dose
of ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline for 14 days. The addition of
metronidazole is recommended to cover anaerobic organisms. This regimen
covers N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and anaerobes.
2. A patient has just been diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea. Which
intramuscular (IM) antibiotic is the recommended first-line treatment?
A. Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
B. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM
C. Gentamicin 240 mg IM
D. Spectinomycin 2 grams IM
Answer: B
Rationale: Due to rising resistance to fluoroquinolones and other antibiotics,
a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone is the standard of care for
uncomplicated gonorrhea.
3. In addition to IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhea, why is it recommended to
also treat the patient with oral doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days?
A. To prevent the development of fungal superinfections
B. To treat possible coexisting chlamydial infection
C. To reduce the pain of the IM injection
D. To enhance the efficacy of the ceftriaxone against gonorrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis is common in patients
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with gonorrhea. Therefore, empiric treatment for chlamydia with
doxycycline is recommended as part of the dual therapy regimen.
4. A 19-year-old non-pregnant female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis
(BV). Which of the following is a first-line treatment option?
A. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once
B. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
D. Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
Answer: C
Rationale: First-line regimens for BV in non-pregnant women include oral
metronidazole (500mg BID for 7 days), topical clindamycin, or topical
metronidazole. Oral therapy is often preferred for its systemic effect.
5. A patient is 30 weeks pregnant and diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis.
Which treatment option is safest and most appropriate?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B. Metronidazole 2 grams PO single dose
C. Oral metronidazole or topical clindamycin
D. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once
Answer: C
Rationale: Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Oral metronidazole
or topical clindamycin are considered safe and effective for treating BV in
pregnant patients.
6. A patient presents with a painful vesicular rash on her genital area, and a
swab is positive for HSV-2. What is the first-line treatment for an initial
outbreak?
A. Acyclovir 400 mg PO TID for 7-10 days
B. Acyclovir 800 mg PO BID for 5 days
C. Valacyclovir 1 gram PO once
D. Famciclovir 500 mg PO once
Answer: A
Rationale: For the initial episode of genital herpes, oral acyclovir (400 mg
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TID), valacyclovir, or famciclovir for 7-10 days is recommended. Acyclovir
400 mg TID is a standard, effective regimen.
7. A patient with recurrent genital herpes (6 outbreaks per year) is
requesting suppressive therapy. What is an appropriate first-line regimen?
A. Acyclovir 400 mg PO BID
B. Acyclovir 800 mg PO five times daily for 2 days
C. Valacyclovir 1 gram PO once daily
D. Both A and C are correct
Answer: D
Rationale: For suppressive therapy of recurrent genital herpes, options
include acyclovir 400 mg BID, valacyclovir 500 mg once daily (for patients
with <10 outbreaks/year), or valacyclovir 1 gram once daily.
8. A 25-year-old male has a purulent urethral discharge. A Gram stain shows
Gram-negative diplococci. Besides ceftriaxone IM, what oral antibiotic
should be prescribed empirically?
A. Metronidazole
B. Doxycycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Penicillin VK
Answer: B
Rationale: While the Gram stain suggests gonorrhea, high rates of co-
infection with chlamydia necessitate treatment for both. The current CDC
recommendation for gonorrhea treatment is ceftriaxone IM plus oral
doxycycline.
9. A patient is treated for trichomoniasis with a 2-gram single dose of
metronidazole. What is essential teaching for this patient?
A. She may experience joint pain for a few days
B. She should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 months
C. She must avoid alcohol for at least 24 hours (up to 48-72 hours is often
recommended) due to a disulfiram-like reaction
D. She needs to return for a follow-up urine test in one week
NR 566 Final Exam: Questions & Answers(
Update) Advanced Pharmacology - Care of
the Family | Chamberlain University
NR 566 Final Exam Study Guide
Advanced Pharmacology - Care of the Family
This comprehensive guide contains 150 practice questions with correct
answers and detailed rationales to help you prepare for the final exam. The
content is organized by body system and therapeutic area as tested in the
course.
Table of Contents
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) & Reproductive Health (Questions 1-
25)
Women's Health & Hormonal Therapy (Questions 26-40)
Men's Health & Urology (Questions 41-50)
Cardiology & Anticoagulation (Questions 51-75)
Endocrinology: Diabetes Management (Questions 76-95)
Endocrinology: Thyroid & Other Disorders (Questions 96-105)
Neurology & Pain Management (Questions 106-125)
Psychiatry & Behavioral Health (Questions 126-140)
Respiratory & Allergy (Questions 141-150)
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) & Reproductive Health
,2|Page
1. A 22-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and
cervical motion tenderness. She is diagnosed with Pelvic Inflammatory
Disease (PID). According to CDC guidelines, which outpatient regimen is
appropriate?
A. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM once + Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 14 days ±
Metronidazole 500 mg BID for 14 days
B. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once + Metronidazole 2 grams PO once
C. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg BID for 14 days
D. Doxycycline 100 mg BID for 7 days alone
Answer: A
Rationale: The recommended outpatient regimen for PID is a single IM dose
of ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline for 14 days. The addition of
metronidazole is recommended to cover anaerobic organisms. This regimen
covers N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and anaerobes.
2. A patient has just been diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea. Which
intramuscular (IM) antibiotic is the recommended first-line treatment?
A. Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM
B. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM
C. Gentamicin 240 mg IM
D. Spectinomycin 2 grams IM
Answer: B
Rationale: Due to rising resistance to fluoroquinolones and other antibiotics,
a single 500 mg IM dose of ceftriaxone is the standard of care for
uncomplicated gonorrhea.
3. In addition to IM ceftriaxone for gonorrhea, why is it recommended to
also treat the patient with oral doxycycline 100mg BID for 7 days?
A. To prevent the development of fungal superinfections
B. To treat possible coexisting chlamydial infection
C. To reduce the pain of the IM injection
D. To enhance the efficacy of the ceftriaxone against gonorrhea
Answer: B
Rationale: Co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis is common in patients
,3|Page
with gonorrhea. Therefore, empiric treatment for chlamydia with
doxycycline is recommended as part of the dual therapy regimen.
4. A 19-year-old non-pregnant female is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis
(BV). Which of the following is a first-line treatment option?
A. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once
B. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Metronidazole 500 mg PO BID for 7 days
D. Fluconazole 150 mg PO once
Answer: C
Rationale: First-line regimens for BV in non-pregnant women include oral
metronidazole (500mg BID for 7 days), topical clindamycin, or topical
metronidazole. Oral therapy is often preferred for its systemic effect.
5. A patient is 30 weeks pregnant and diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis.
Which treatment option is safest and most appropriate?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B. Metronidazole 2 grams PO single dose
C. Oral metronidazole or topical clindamycin
D. Azithromycin 1 gram PO once
Answer: C
Rationale: Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy. Oral metronidazole
or topical clindamycin are considered safe and effective for treating BV in
pregnant patients.
6. A patient presents with a painful vesicular rash on her genital area, and a
swab is positive for HSV-2. What is the first-line treatment for an initial
outbreak?
A. Acyclovir 400 mg PO TID for 7-10 days
B. Acyclovir 800 mg PO BID for 5 days
C. Valacyclovir 1 gram PO once
D. Famciclovir 500 mg PO once
Answer: A
Rationale: For the initial episode of genital herpes, oral acyclovir (400 mg
, 4|Page
TID), valacyclovir, or famciclovir for 7-10 days is recommended. Acyclovir
400 mg TID is a standard, effective regimen.
7. A patient with recurrent genital herpes (6 outbreaks per year) is
requesting suppressive therapy. What is an appropriate first-line regimen?
A. Acyclovir 400 mg PO BID
B. Acyclovir 800 mg PO five times daily for 2 days
C. Valacyclovir 1 gram PO once daily
D. Both A and C are correct
Answer: D
Rationale: For suppressive therapy of recurrent genital herpes, options
include acyclovir 400 mg BID, valacyclovir 500 mg once daily (for patients
with <10 outbreaks/year), or valacyclovir 1 gram once daily.
8. A 25-year-old male has a purulent urethral discharge. A Gram stain shows
Gram-negative diplococci. Besides ceftriaxone IM, what oral antibiotic
should be prescribed empirically?
A. Metronidazole
B. Doxycycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Penicillin VK
Answer: B
Rationale: While the Gram stain suggests gonorrhea, high rates of co-
infection with chlamydia necessitate treatment for both. The current CDC
recommendation for gonorrhea treatment is ceftriaxone IM plus oral
doxycycline.
9. A patient is treated for trichomoniasis with a 2-gram single dose of
metronidazole. What is essential teaching for this patient?
A. She may experience joint pain for a few days
B. She should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 months
C. She must avoid alcohol for at least 24 hours (up to 48-72 hours is often
recommended) due to a disulfiram-like reaction
D. She needs to return for a follow-up urine test in one week
