Pharmacology Evolve HESI 2024–2025 | Latest
Questions and Correct Answers on Neostigmine,
Updated Study Guide, and Verified Exam Prep
Material (A+ Rated)
,1. Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic
drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by
pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to
pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the
effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
2. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO
daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN.
The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the
nurse anticipate?
A.
Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B.
Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C.
Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D.Begin treatment with an antibiotic. - ✔✔✔✔-C. Decrease
the dose of vitamin C.
3. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine
bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has
the highest priority?
A.Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B.Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C.Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D.Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation. - ✔✔✔✔-B. Assess respiratory
status and breath sounds often.
4. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication
should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
5. A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
6. B.Midazolam IV
7. C.Ketamine IM
8. D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM - ✔✔✔✔-B. Midazolam IV
9. A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine
to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse
provide to this client prior to discharge?
, A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. - ✔✔✔✔-D. Drink
at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
10. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child
whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse
informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every
week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary.
Which complication is assessed through frequent laboratory
testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
11. D.Hepatotoxicity - ✔✔✔✔-C. Myelosuppression
12. A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head
injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation.
To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client from
"fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers
pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What
medication should be immediately accessible for a potential
complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine - ✔✔✔✔-B. Neostigmine bromideMyelosuppression is
the highest priority complication that can potentially affect
clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The client
requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly
laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this
complication does not have as great a potential for occurrence
as option C. Options A and B are not typical complications of
carbamazepine therapy.
13. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client
receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse
writes,
, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which
type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add
this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide - ✔✔✔✔-D. Cyclophosphamide
14. Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does
not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
15. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea
corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an
accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by
the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - ✔✔✔✔-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
16. Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should
be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side
effects of this medication.
17. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department
with status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure
disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for
the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in
the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - ✔✔✔✔-B. Diazepam
Questions and Correct Answers on Neostigmine,
Updated Study Guide, and Verified Exam Prep
Material (A+ Rated)
,1. Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic
drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by
pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists to
pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing the
effects of the drug compared with the use of anticholinergics.
2. A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO
daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN.
The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should the
nurse anticipate?
A.
Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B.
Change the elixir to an injectable route.
C.
Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D.Begin treatment with an antibiotic. - ✔✔✔✔-C. Decrease
the dose of vitamin C.
3. When providing nursing care for a client receiving pyridostigmine
bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing intervention has
the highest priority?
A.Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B.Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C.Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D.Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation. - ✔✔✔✔-B. Assess respiratory
status and breath sounds often.
4. A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication
should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the procedure?
5. A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
6. B.Midazolam IV
7. C.Ketamine IM
8. D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM - ✔✔✔✔-B. Midazolam IV
9. A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine
to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse
provide to this client prior to discharge?
, A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. - ✔✔✔✔-D. Drink
at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
10. The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child
whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The nurse
informs the mother that the child must have blood tests every
week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are necessary.
Which complication is assessed through frequent laboratory
testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
11. D.Hepatotoxicity - ✔✔✔✔-C. Myelosuppression
12. A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head
injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical ventilation.
To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the client from
"fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider administers
pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid analgesia. What
medication should be immediately accessible for a potential
complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine - ✔✔✔✔-B. Neostigmine bromideMyelosuppression is
the highest priority complication that can potentially affect
clients managed with carbamazepine therapy. The client
requires close monitoring for this condition by weekly
laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but this
complication does not have as great a potential for occurrence
as option C. Options A and B are not typical complications of
carbamazepine therapy.
13. When developing a written nursing care plan for a client
receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse
writes,
, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration of which
type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the nurse to add
this intervention?
A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide - ✔✔✔✔-D. Cyclophosphamide
14. Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does
not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
15. A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea
corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an
accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by
the nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug." - ✔✔✔✔-
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
16. Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should
be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side
effects of this medication.
17. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department
with status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure
disorder has been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for
the past year. Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in
the emergency department?
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Phenobarbital
D. Carbamazepine - ✔✔✔✔-B. Diazepam
