NUR 2513 MATERNAL FINAL ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
Three Different Versions | Rasmussen University | Actual
Questions and Answers Solved 100% | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
VERSION A (50 Questions)
Domain 1: Antepartum Care (10 Questions)
Q1-A: A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal
visit. She reports moderate nausea and occasional vomiting. Her BMI is 31 kg/m².
Which nutritional counseling is MOST appropriate for this patient?
A. Increase caloric intake by 300 kcal/day immediately and consume 175g protein daily
B. Gain 25-35 pounds throughout pregnancy with emphasis on low-carbohydrate foods
C. Gain 15-25 pounds with balanced nutrition; folic acid 600 mcg daily [CORRECT]
D. Maintain current weight to prevent gestational diabetes complications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For women with pre-pregnancy BMI ≥30 (obese), the Institute of Medicine
recommends total weight gain of 11-20 pounds (5-9 kg), though 15-25 is often cited as
,a practical range. The 300 kcal increase applies to second trimester, not first (Option A
is incorrect). Option B's weight gain recommendation is excessive for obese patients.
Option D is dangerous as some weight gain is essential for fetal development. Folic acid
requirements increase from 400 mcg to 600 mcg during pregnancy to prevent neural
tube defects. The patient needs balanced nutrition focusing on nutrient density rather
than restrictive dieting.
Q2-A: A pregnant patient at 16 weeks gestation asks when she should expect to feel
fetal movement. What is the MOST accurate response?
A. "You should have felt movement by now; we need an ultrasound immediately"
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 18-20 weeks for primigravidas [CORRECT]
C. "Fetal movement is usually felt at 24 weeks in all pregnancies"
D. "Multiparous women feel movement later than first-time mothers"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically occurs at 18-20
weeks for primigravidas and 16-18 weeks for multiparas. Option A creates unnecessary
anxiety as 16 weeks is still early for primigravidas. Option C is incorrect as 24 weeks is
late for initial movement perception. Option D reverses the actual pattern—multiparas
recognize movement earlier due to prior experience. Teaching should include that
decreased fetal movement after established quickening requires immediate evaluation.
,Q3-A: [Select All That Apply] A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 28 weeks
gestation. Which findings require immediate provider notification? (Select all that apply)
A. Blood pressure 138/88 mmHg (previously 118/72) [CORRECT]
B. 2+ proteinuria on dipstick [CORRECT]
C. Severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen [CORRECT]
D. Mild ankle edema at end of day
E. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week [CORRECT]
F. Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: These findings suggest preeclampsia: systolic BP increase ≥30 mmHg or
diastolic ≥15 mmHg from baseline (A), proteinuria ≥1+ (B), persistent headache (C), and
rapid weight gain (>2 lbs/week) indicating fluid retention (E). Mild dependent edema (D)
is normal in third trimester. FHR 140 bpm (F) is normal (110-160 bpm). Preeclampsia
typically develops after 20 weeks and requires immediate intervention to prevent
eclampsia and organ damage.
, Q4-A: A patient at 32 weeks gestation with type 1 diabetes has a fasting blood glucose
of 142 mg/dL. Which nursing intervention is PRIORITY?
A. Administer regular insulin immediately per sliding scale
B. Assess for signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) [CORRECT]
C. Encourage patient to skip breakfast to lower glucose
D. Increase IV fluid rate to dilute blood sugar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During pregnancy, fasting glucose should be <95 mg/dL; 142 mg/dL is
significantly elevated. Pregnant diabetics are at increased risk for DKA at lower glucose
levels due to respiratory alkalosis and accelerated starvation ketosis. Priority is
assessing for DKA (Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath, altered mental status). Option
A may be appropriate but requires provider order and DKA assessment first. Option C is
dangerous—starvation ketosis worsens maternal and fetal outcomes. Option D without
DKA confirmation could cause fluid overload.
Q5-A: [Ordered Response] Place the following prenatal laboratory screenings in
chronological order from first to last during a standard pregnancy:
1. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
2. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
Three Different Versions | Rasmussen University | Actual
Questions and Answers Solved 100% | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
VERSION A (50 Questions)
Domain 1: Antepartum Care (10 Questions)
Q1-A: A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal
visit. She reports moderate nausea and occasional vomiting. Her BMI is 31 kg/m².
Which nutritional counseling is MOST appropriate for this patient?
A. Increase caloric intake by 300 kcal/day immediately and consume 175g protein daily
B. Gain 25-35 pounds throughout pregnancy with emphasis on low-carbohydrate foods
C. Gain 15-25 pounds with balanced nutrition; folic acid 600 mcg daily [CORRECT]
D. Maintain current weight to prevent gestational diabetes complications
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For women with pre-pregnancy BMI ≥30 (obese), the Institute of Medicine
recommends total weight gain of 11-20 pounds (5-9 kg), though 15-25 is often cited as
,a practical range. The 300 kcal increase applies to second trimester, not first (Option A
is incorrect). Option B's weight gain recommendation is excessive for obese patients.
Option D is dangerous as some weight gain is essential for fetal development. Folic acid
requirements increase from 400 mcg to 600 mcg during pregnancy to prevent neural
tube defects. The patient needs balanced nutrition focusing on nutrient density rather
than restrictive dieting.
Q2-A: A pregnant patient at 16 weeks gestation asks when she should expect to feel
fetal movement. What is the MOST accurate response?
A. "You should have felt movement by now; we need an ultrasound immediately"
B. "Quickening typically occurs between 18-20 weeks for primigravidas [CORRECT]
C. "Fetal movement is usually felt at 24 weeks in all pregnancies"
D. "Multiparous women feel movement later than first-time mothers"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening (maternal perception of fetal movement) typically occurs at 18-20
weeks for primigravidas and 16-18 weeks for multiparas. Option A creates unnecessary
anxiety as 16 weeks is still early for primigravidas. Option C is incorrect as 24 weeks is
late for initial movement perception. Option D reverses the actual pattern—multiparas
recognize movement earlier due to prior experience. Teaching should include that
decreased fetal movement after established quickening requires immediate evaluation.
,Q3-A: [Select All That Apply] A nurse is assessing a pregnant patient at 28 weeks
gestation. Which findings require immediate provider notification? (Select all that apply)
A. Blood pressure 138/88 mmHg (previously 118/72) [CORRECT]
B. 2+ proteinuria on dipstick [CORRECT]
C. Severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen [CORRECT]
D. Mild ankle edema at end of day
E. Weight gain of 2 pounds in one week [CORRECT]
F. Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: These findings suggest preeclampsia: systolic BP increase ≥30 mmHg or
diastolic ≥15 mmHg from baseline (A), proteinuria ≥1+ (B), persistent headache (C), and
rapid weight gain (>2 lbs/week) indicating fluid retention (E). Mild dependent edema (D)
is normal in third trimester. FHR 140 bpm (F) is normal (110-160 bpm). Preeclampsia
typically develops after 20 weeks and requires immediate intervention to prevent
eclampsia and organ damage.
, Q4-A: A patient at 32 weeks gestation with type 1 diabetes has a fasting blood glucose
of 142 mg/dL. Which nursing intervention is PRIORITY?
A. Administer regular insulin immediately per sliding scale
B. Assess for signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) [CORRECT]
C. Encourage patient to skip breakfast to lower glucose
D. Increase IV fluid rate to dilute blood sugar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During pregnancy, fasting glucose should be <95 mg/dL; 142 mg/dL is
significantly elevated. Pregnant diabetics are at increased risk for DKA at lower glucose
levels due to respiratory alkalosis and accelerated starvation ketosis. Priority is
assessing for DKA (Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath, altered mental status). Option
A may be appropriate but requires provider order and DKA assessment first. Option C is
dangerous—starvation ketosis worsens maternal and fetal outcomes. Option D without
DKA confirmation could cause fluid overload.
Q5-A: [Ordered Response] Place the following prenatal laboratory screenings in
chronological order from first to last during a standard pregnancy:
1. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture
2. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)
