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LEIK FNP Practice FNP Board Latest Exam Prep Test Bank with 650 Questions and Correct Answers/ ANCC FNP Certification Exam Prep Test Bank / AANP FNP Exam Prep Test Bank 2026

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LEIK FNP Practice FNP Board Latest Exam Prep Test Bank with 650 Questions and Correct Answers/ ANCC FNP Certification Exam Prep Test Bank / AANP FNP Exam Prep Test Bank 2026

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LEIK FNP Practice FNP Board Latest Exam Prep Test
Bank with 650 Questions and Correct Answers/ ANCC FNP
Certification Exam Prep Test Bank 2026-2027/ AANP FNP
Exam Prep Test Bank 2026

A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to control her
Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently
complaining of pain on her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen
(Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in pain and would like
something stronger. Which of the following statements is the best explanation of the effects of
ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease?


A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true - Answer - B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and
blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic.


NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the
kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by decreasing renal
blood flow.


2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:


A) Bacterialvaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis - Answer - D) Chlamydia trachomatis

,Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and
trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining ,
fallopian tubes, and pelvic cavity.


The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:


A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastriculcer - Answer - B) Acute appendicitis.


Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound tenderness,
boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A positive obturator sign occurs
when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The
psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the patient is
lying on his/her side with knees extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her
thigh at the hip.


Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the following except:


A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure - Answer - D) A
prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure


Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with bath- room
privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein and serum protein,
creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as first-line treatment.


All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A except:

,A) Inpatienthospitalizations
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized
C) Nursing home care
D) Surgeons - Answer - C) Nursing home care


Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a certified
skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with bathing, dressing,
using a bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by Medicare A.




Mr. Brown is a 65-year-old carpenter complaining of morning stiffness and pain in both his
hands and right knee upon awakening. He feels some relief after warming up. On exam, the
nurse notices the presence of Heberden's nodes. Which of the fol- lowing is most likely?


A) Osteoporosis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Degenerative joint disease
D) Reiter's syndrome - Answer - C) Degenerative joint disease


Heberden's nodes are commonly seen in degenerative joint disease. Heberden's nodes are bony
nodules located on the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).


What does a positive posterior drawer sign in a 10-year-old soccer player signify?


A) An abnormal knee
B) Instability of the knee
C) A large amount of swelling on the knee
D) An injury of the meniscus - Answer - B) Instability of the knee

, The drawer sign is performed on the knee or ankle to assess for knee instability. The affected
knee will have more laxity when compared to the unaffected knee.


A multigravida who is at 28 weeks of gestation has a fundal height of 29 cm. Which of the
following is the best recommendation for this patient?


A) Advise the mother that her pregnancy is progressing well
B) Order an ultrasound of the uterus
C) Refer her to an obstetrician for an amniocentesis
D) Recommend bed rest with bathroom privileges - Answer - A) Advise the mother that her
pregnancy is progressing well


From 20-35 weeks' gestation, fundal height should equal weeks gestation. If greater than 2 cm
within the gestational week of pregnancy, further testing should be performed to evaluate fetal
growth


A multigravida who is at 34 weeks of gestation wants to know at what level her uterine fundus
should be. The best answer is to advise the mother that her fun- dus is:


A) Midway between the umbilicus and the lower ribs
B) At the level of the umbilicus
C) From 33 to 35 cm
D) From 32 to 34 cm - Answer - C) From 33 to 35 cm


After 20 weeks gestation, fundal height in centimeters should measure approximately the same
as the number of weeks of gestation


Which of the following laboratory tests is used in primary care to evaluate renal function?


A) Electrolyte panel
B) Creatinine

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