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USPA D LICENSE ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Well Sorted Questions and
Answers | Graded A+ & Best for That Good
Grade | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (24 Questions)
Q1: A skydiver experiences a hard/fast malfunction at 3,500 feet with the main parachute
deploying but spinning rapidly and not responding to toggle input. The skydiver has
approximately 200 jumps and is working toward their D-license. Which of the following actions
should the skydiver take FIRST?
A. Continue attempting to correct the spin by applying opposite toggle
B. Cut away the main parachute immediately and deploy the reserve
C. Pull the rear risers to stall the canopy and stop the spin
D. Wait until 2,500 feet to decide if the situation improves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard/fast malfunction that creates a spinning, uncontrollable descent requires
immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. [CORRECT] Option B is correct because altitude
is critical—3,500 feet provides sufficient time for reserve deployment but not for prolonged
troubleshooting of a serious malfunction. Option A is incorrect because continuing to fight an
unrecoverable malfunction wastes critical altitude. Option C is incorrect and dangerous; stalling
a malfunctioning canopy can create an even more unstable situation. Option D is incorrect
because waiting reduces altitude and eliminates the margin of safety for reserve deployment.
Q2: During a night jump for D-license qualification, a jumper deploys at 3,500 feet AGL and
discovers their main canopy has a line twist that cannot be cleared after two attempts. The
ground is not visible due to overcast conditions. What is the appropriate response?
A. Attempt to clear the line twist one more time, then cut away if unsuccessful
B. Cut away immediately and deploy the reserve, trusting the AAD as backup
C. Cut away immediately and deploy the reserve, then visually confirm reserve deployment
D. Fly the line twist to the ground since the reserve might have the same problem
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option C is correct. USPA SIM Section 5-1 and night jump protocols
require immediate cutaway when a main malfunction cannot be cleared promptly. At night,
visual confirmation of reserve deployment is critical because you cannot see the canopy against
the ground. Option A delays the inevitable and wastes altitude. Option B creates dangerous
reliance on AADs, which are emergency backup devices, not primary deployment tools. Option
D violates fundamental safety principles—line twists significantly reduce canopy control and
increase landing injury risk.
Q3: A D-license candidate is performing a water landing training jump. At 1,000 feet, they notice
their main canopy has a small tear in the fabric but is flying normally with no control issues.
What should be their PRIMARY consideration regarding equipment?
A. The tear is minor; proceed with normal landing and deal with water damage later
B. Cut away and deploy reserve to avoid equipment damage from water landing
C. Land normally, activate flotation device immediately upon water entry, and prepare for quick
release
D. Avoid the water landing area and attempt to reach shore
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option C is correct. USPA SIM Section 6-4 covers water landing
procedures. A small tear does not constitute a malfunction requiring cutaway. The priority is
executing the planned water landing with proper procedure: flotation device activation, quick-
release preparation, and controlled entry. Option A ignores the quick-release necessity. Option B
is unnecessary equipment sacrifice. Option D could lead to off-DZ landing hazards and violates
jump plan safety protocols.
Q4: A jumper experiences a total malfunction (no deployment) at 2,500 feet. They initiate
emergency procedures but hesitate because they see another jumper below them. What is the
correct decision?
A. Pull the reserve immediately; altitude preservation is the priority
B. Wait until clear of the other jumper to avoid reserve deployment collision
C. Track away horizontally before pulling the reserve
D. Pull the reserve and steer aggressively to avoid the other jumper
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option A is correct. FAA 14 CFR 105.43 and USPA BSRs mandate
immediate reserve deployment for total malfunctions regardless of other traffic. Altitude is
irreplaceable; a collision with another canopy is survivable, ground impact is not. Option B
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delays critical altitude reserve. Option C wastes precious seconds and altitude. Option D suggests
steering a reserve immediately after deployment, which can induce malfunctions in the
deploying reserve.
Q5: During a formation skydive, a jumper's main deploys at break-off altitude with severe line
twists and the canopy is diving. The jumper is at 4,500 feet in a 4-way formation. What is the
correct sequence?
A. Attempt to clear twists while falling through the formation
B. Cut away immediately, deploy reserve, and track away from formation traffic
C. Wait until 2,500 feet to see if the canopy recovers
D. Pull rear risers to stop the dive while attempting to clear twists
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. A diving malfunction in a formation context
requires immediate cutaway to prevent collision with other deploying jumpers and to preserve
altitude for reserve deployment. USPA SIM Section 5-1 emphasizes that unrecoverable
malfunctions in group situations demand immediate action. Option A creates collision hazards.
Option C wastes altitude. Option D is dangerous—rear riser input on a diving, twisted canopy
can exacerbate the malfunction.
Q6: A jumper with 600 jumps experiences a pilot chute in tow at 3,000 feet. The main container
is closed, but the pilot chute is trailing and the main is not deploying. What is the correct
procedure?
A. Attempt to pull the main deployment handle again
B. Cut away and deploy reserve immediately
C. Wait to see if the main eventually deploys
D. Pull the reserve without cutting away
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. Pilot chute in tow is a partial malfunction that
typically will not resolve itself. USPA SIM Section 5-1.C states that pilot chute in tow requires
immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. The trailing pilot chute may entangle with the
reserve if not cut away. Option A is futile—the deployment system has already failed. Option C
wastes critical altitude. Option D risks reserve/main entanglement and dual deployment.
Q7: During a high-performance landing setup, a jumper realizes at 800 feet they have misjudged
their turn and are facing directly toward the spectator area. What is the correct response?
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A. Complete the turn as planned and flare hard to stop quickly
B. Abort the high-performance turn, perform a standard landing straight ahead, and accept an off-
field landing if necessary
C. Perform a 180-degree turn to face away from spectators and land downwind
D. Execute a hook turn away from the crowd regardless of altitude
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. USPA SIM Section 6-10 and canopy safety
protocols require aborting high-performance maneuvers when landing hazards appear. A
standard, controlled landing into an open area is always preferable to a high-performance landing
near hazards. Option A endangers spectators. Option C creates a downwind landing, which is
dangerous at low altitude. Option D violates the 1,000-foot hook turn safety recommendation
and could cause a low-altitude stall/spin.
Q8: A jumper's AAD fires at 1,000 feet while they are setting up for a high-performance landing
with front risers engaged. What is the correct response?
A. Continue the landing as the reserve will likely not deploy fully before landing
B. Immediately release front risers and prepare for dual deployment situation
C. Cut away the main and attempt to clear the reserve deployment
D. Pull the reserve handle to ensure manual deployment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. USPA SIM Section 5-3 covers AAD emergency
procedures. When an AAD fires during landing setup, the jumper must immediately release any
control inputs that might interfere with reserve deployment and prepare to handle a potential dual
deployment or main/reserve entanglement. Option A ignores the reserve deployment. Option C is
unnecessary—the AAD has already initiated reserve deployment. Option D is redundant and
potentially confusing in an already complex situation.
Q9: A D-license jumper is performing a CRW (Canopy Relative Work) jump. At 2,500 feet, their
canopy collapses during a dock attempt. What is the immediate priority?
A. Attempt to reinflate the canopy using rear risers
B. Cut away and deploy reserve immediately
C. Wait for the canopy to recover naturally
D. Wave off other CRW jumpers and then assess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. Canopy collapse during CRW at low altitude
requires immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. CRW canopies are designed to reinflate,
USPA D LICENSE ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Well Sorted Questions and
Answers | Graded A+ & Best for That Good
Grade | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (24 Questions)
Q1: A skydiver experiences a hard/fast malfunction at 3,500 feet with the main parachute
deploying but spinning rapidly and not responding to toggle input. The skydiver has
approximately 200 jumps and is working toward their D-license. Which of the following actions
should the skydiver take FIRST?
A. Continue attempting to correct the spin by applying opposite toggle
B. Cut away the main parachute immediately and deploy the reserve
C. Pull the rear risers to stall the canopy and stop the spin
D. Wait until 2,500 feet to decide if the situation improves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard/fast malfunction that creates a spinning, uncontrollable descent requires
immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. [CORRECT] Option B is correct because altitude
is critical—3,500 feet provides sufficient time for reserve deployment but not for prolonged
troubleshooting of a serious malfunction. Option A is incorrect because continuing to fight an
unrecoverable malfunction wastes critical altitude. Option C is incorrect and dangerous; stalling
a malfunctioning canopy can create an even more unstable situation. Option D is incorrect
because waiting reduces altitude and eliminates the margin of safety for reserve deployment.
Q2: During a night jump for D-license qualification, a jumper deploys at 3,500 feet AGL and
discovers their main canopy has a line twist that cannot be cleared after two attempts. The
ground is not visible due to overcast conditions. What is the appropriate response?
A. Attempt to clear the line twist one more time, then cut away if unsuccessful
B. Cut away immediately and deploy the reserve, trusting the AAD as backup
C. Cut away immediately and deploy the reserve, then visually confirm reserve deployment
D. Fly the line twist to the ground since the reserve might have the same problem
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Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option C is correct. USPA SIM Section 5-1 and night jump protocols
require immediate cutaway when a main malfunction cannot be cleared promptly. At night,
visual confirmation of reserve deployment is critical because you cannot see the canopy against
the ground. Option A delays the inevitable and wastes altitude. Option B creates dangerous
reliance on AADs, which are emergency backup devices, not primary deployment tools. Option
D violates fundamental safety principles—line twists significantly reduce canopy control and
increase landing injury risk.
Q3: A D-license candidate is performing a water landing training jump. At 1,000 feet, they notice
their main canopy has a small tear in the fabric but is flying normally with no control issues.
What should be their PRIMARY consideration regarding equipment?
A. The tear is minor; proceed with normal landing and deal with water damage later
B. Cut away and deploy reserve to avoid equipment damage from water landing
C. Land normally, activate flotation device immediately upon water entry, and prepare for quick
release
D. Avoid the water landing area and attempt to reach shore
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option C is correct. USPA SIM Section 6-4 covers water landing
procedures. A small tear does not constitute a malfunction requiring cutaway. The priority is
executing the planned water landing with proper procedure: flotation device activation, quick-
release preparation, and controlled entry. Option A ignores the quick-release necessity. Option B
is unnecessary equipment sacrifice. Option D could lead to off-DZ landing hazards and violates
jump plan safety protocols.
Q4: A jumper experiences a total malfunction (no deployment) at 2,500 feet. They initiate
emergency procedures but hesitate because they see another jumper below them. What is the
correct decision?
A. Pull the reserve immediately; altitude preservation is the priority
B. Wait until clear of the other jumper to avoid reserve deployment collision
C. Track away horizontally before pulling the reserve
D. Pull the reserve and steer aggressively to avoid the other jumper
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option A is correct. FAA 14 CFR 105.43 and USPA BSRs mandate
immediate reserve deployment for total malfunctions regardless of other traffic. Altitude is
irreplaceable; a collision with another canopy is survivable, ground impact is not. Option B
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delays critical altitude reserve. Option C wastes precious seconds and altitude. Option D suggests
steering a reserve immediately after deployment, which can induce malfunctions in the
deploying reserve.
Q5: During a formation skydive, a jumper's main deploys at break-off altitude with severe line
twists and the canopy is diving. The jumper is at 4,500 feet in a 4-way formation. What is the
correct sequence?
A. Attempt to clear twists while falling through the formation
B. Cut away immediately, deploy reserve, and track away from formation traffic
C. Wait until 2,500 feet to see if the canopy recovers
D. Pull rear risers to stop the dive while attempting to clear twists
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. A diving malfunction in a formation context
requires immediate cutaway to prevent collision with other deploying jumpers and to preserve
altitude for reserve deployment. USPA SIM Section 5-1 emphasizes that unrecoverable
malfunctions in group situations demand immediate action. Option A creates collision hazards.
Option C wastes altitude. Option D is dangerous—rear riser input on a diving, twisted canopy
can exacerbate the malfunction.
Q6: A jumper with 600 jumps experiences a pilot chute in tow at 3,000 feet. The main container
is closed, but the pilot chute is trailing and the main is not deploying. What is the correct
procedure?
A. Attempt to pull the main deployment handle again
B. Cut away and deploy reserve immediately
C. Wait to see if the main eventually deploys
D. Pull the reserve without cutting away
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. Pilot chute in tow is a partial malfunction that
typically will not resolve itself. USPA SIM Section 5-1.C states that pilot chute in tow requires
immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. The trailing pilot chute may entangle with the
reserve if not cut away. Option A is futile—the deployment system has already failed. Option C
wastes critical altitude. Option D risks reserve/main entanglement and dual deployment.
Q7: During a high-performance landing setup, a jumper realizes at 800 feet they have misjudged
their turn and are facing directly toward the spectator area. What is the correct response?
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A. Complete the turn as planned and flare hard to stop quickly
B. Abort the high-performance turn, perform a standard landing straight ahead, and accept an off-
field landing if necessary
C. Perform a 180-degree turn to face away from spectators and land downwind
D. Execute a hook turn away from the crowd regardless of altitude
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. USPA SIM Section 6-10 and canopy safety
protocols require aborting high-performance maneuvers when landing hazards appear. A
standard, controlled landing into an open area is always preferable to a high-performance landing
near hazards. Option A endangers spectators. Option C creates a downwind landing, which is
dangerous at low altitude. Option D violates the 1,000-foot hook turn safety recommendation
and could cause a low-altitude stall/spin.
Q8: A jumper's AAD fires at 1,000 feet while they are setting up for a high-performance landing
with front risers engaged. What is the correct response?
A. Continue the landing as the reserve will likely not deploy fully before landing
B. Immediately release front risers and prepare for dual deployment situation
C. Cut away the main and attempt to clear the reserve deployment
D. Pull the reserve handle to ensure manual deployment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. USPA SIM Section 5-3 covers AAD emergency
procedures. When an AAD fires during landing setup, the jumper must immediately release any
control inputs that might interfere with reserve deployment and prepare to handle a potential dual
deployment or main/reserve entanglement. Option A ignores the reserve deployment. Option C is
unnecessary—the AAD has already initiated reserve deployment. Option D is redundant and
potentially confusing in an already complex situation.
Q9: A D-license jumper is performing a CRW (Canopy Relative Work) jump. At 2,500 feet, their
canopy collapses during a dock attempt. What is the immediate priority?
A. Attempt to reinflate the canopy using rear risers
B. Cut away and deploy reserve immediately
C. Wait for the canopy to recover naturally
D. Wave off other CRW jumpers and then assess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: [CORRECT] Option B is correct. Canopy collapse during CRW at low altitude
requires immediate cutaway and reserve deployment. CRW canopies are designed to reinflate,
