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ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
100 Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Graded
A+ & Updated to Latest Clinical Standards | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Assessment and Diagnosis
Q1: A 55-year-old patient presents for a comprehensive dental examination. The medical history
reveals hypertension controlled with lisinopril and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. The
patient's blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, and random blood glucose is 180 mg/dL. Which of the
following actions is MOST appropriate?
A. Proceed with dental treatment as planned
B. Defer elective dental treatment and refer for medical evaluation of blood pressure and glucose
control [CORRECT]
C. Administer local anesthesia with epinephrine and proceed
D. Prescribe antibiotics before any dental treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hypertension (BP >140/90) and elevated blood glucose indicate poor
medical management. Elective dental treatment should be deferred until medical optimization.
Option A ignores medical risks. Option C could exacerbate hypertension. Option D is not
indicated without infection.
Q2: A 65-year-old patient reports taking bisphosphonates orally for osteoporosis for the past 3
years. The patient requires a tooth extraction. Which of the following is the MOST important
consideration?
A. The patient should stop bisphosphonates 1 week before extraction
B. Risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) [CORRECT]
C. Bisphosphonates have no effect on dental treatment
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required for all extractions
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Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates increase the risk of MRONJ, though risk is lower than with IV
bisphosphonates. Option A is incorrect—discontinuing oral bisphosphonates does not eliminate
risk and should be discussed with the physician. Option C is false. Option D is not routinely
indicated.
Q3: A panoramic radiograph reveals a well-defined, corticated radiolucency surrounding the
crown of an unerupted mandibular third molar. This finding is consistent with:
A. Periapical cyst (radicular cyst)
B. Dentigerous cyst [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) surrounds the crown of an unerupted tooth,
attached at the cementoenamel junction. Option A (periapical cyst) is at the apex of a non-vital
tooth. Option C (OKC) may be multilocular. Option D (ameloblastoma) is often multilocular and
aggressive.
Q4: A patient presents with a 3-day history of swelling, pain, and purulent drainage from the
gingival margin of tooth #19. Probing depths are 8 mm with bleeding on probing. Radiograph
shows moderate bone loss. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periodontal abscess [CORRECT]
C. Pericoronitis
D. Gingival abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Periodontal abscess presents with localized swelling, purulent drainage, deep probing
depths, and bone loss associated with periodontitis. Option A (periapical) would show periapical
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radiolucency. Option C (pericoronitis) involves an operculum over a partially erupted tooth.
Option D (gingival) is confined to gingiva without attachment loss.
Q5: A 22-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival enlargement. Medical history
reveals the patient is taking cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which of the following
is the MOST likely cause of the gingival enlargement?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Drug-influenced gingival enlargement [CORRECT]
C. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
D. Plaque-induced gingivitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cyclosporine is a known cause of drug-influenced gingival enlargement. While
plaque exacerbates the condition, the primary etiology is the medication. Option A causes
scurvy-related changes. Option C is genetic. Option D causes inflammation but not the fibrous
enlargement seen here.
Q6: During an oral cancer screening, a clinician notes a solitary, well-circumscribed, fluctuant
swelling on the ventral surface of the tongue that appears blue and translucent. The patient
reports it has been present for 2 weeks and fluctuates in size. What is the MOST likely
diagnosis?
A. Mucocele (Ranula) [CORRECT]
B. Hemangioma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A fluctuant, fluid-filled lesion on the ventral tongue is characteristic of a ranula
(mucocele). Option B (hemangioma) does not typically fluctuate rapidly and blanches. Option C
(cancer) is typically indurated and non-fluctuant. Option D presents as a solid mass.
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Q7: (Radiographic Interpretation) A periapical radiograph of tooth #14 reveals a "spiking" root
resorption pattern and obliteration of the pulp chamber. The patient has a history of orthodontic
treatment 5 years ago. No caries or periapical radiolucency is noted. What is the MOST likely
interpretation?
A. Internal resorption
B. External cervical resorption
C. Age-related calcification and orthodontic-induced resorption [CORRECT]
D. Periapical cyst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Orthodontic treatment can lead to root resorption and pulpal obliteration. Without
symptoms or periapical pathology, this is a sequela of past treatment. Option A shows a balloon-
like expansion within the canal. Option B shows a radiolucent area in the cervical region.
Q8: A patient presents with a positive Tollison test and reports using oral tobacco (snuff) for 10
years. Clinical examination reveals a white, wrinkled lesion in the mandibular vestibule that
cannot be wiped off. This finding is MOST consistent with:
A. Lichen planus
B. Smokeless tobacco keratosis [CORRECT]
C. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
D. Leukoplakia (idiopathic)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The location (vestibule) and appearance (white, wrinkled) in a smokeless tobacco user
are diagnostic for smokeless tobacco keratosis. Option A (lichen planus) has reticular striae.
Option C can be wiped off. Option D is a diagnosis of exclusion.
Q9: (Periodontal Charting Scenario)
Clinical Data:
Tooth #3: Probing depths: MB 6mm, B 5mm, DB 7mm, P 3mm, ML 4mm, L 3mm, DL 6mm.
ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
100 Questions with 100% Verified Answers | Graded
A+ & Updated to Latest Clinical Standards | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Assessment and Diagnosis
Q1: A 55-year-old patient presents for a comprehensive dental examination. The medical history
reveals hypertension controlled with lisinopril and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. The
patient's blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, and random blood glucose is 180 mg/dL. Which of the
following actions is MOST appropriate?
A. Proceed with dental treatment as planned
B. Defer elective dental treatment and refer for medical evaluation of blood pressure and glucose
control [CORRECT]
C. Administer local anesthesia with epinephrine and proceed
D. Prescribe antibiotics before any dental treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hypertension (BP >140/90) and elevated blood glucose indicate poor
medical management. Elective dental treatment should be deferred until medical optimization.
Option A ignores medical risks. Option C could exacerbate hypertension. Option D is not
indicated without infection.
Q2: A 65-year-old patient reports taking bisphosphonates orally for osteoporosis for the past 3
years. The patient requires a tooth extraction. Which of the following is the MOST important
consideration?
A. The patient should stop bisphosphonates 1 week before extraction
B. Risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) [CORRECT]
C. Bisphosphonates have no effect on dental treatment
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required for all extractions
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Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates increase the risk of MRONJ, though risk is lower than with IV
bisphosphonates. Option A is incorrect—discontinuing oral bisphosphonates does not eliminate
risk and should be discussed with the physician. Option C is false. Option D is not routinely
indicated.
Q3: A panoramic radiograph reveals a well-defined, corticated radiolucency surrounding the
crown of an unerupted mandibular third molar. This finding is consistent with:
A. Periapical cyst (radicular cyst)
B. Dentigerous cyst [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) surrounds the crown of an unerupted tooth,
attached at the cementoenamel junction. Option A (periapical cyst) is at the apex of a non-vital
tooth. Option C (OKC) may be multilocular. Option D (ameloblastoma) is often multilocular and
aggressive.
Q4: A patient presents with a 3-day history of swelling, pain, and purulent drainage from the
gingival margin of tooth #19. Probing depths are 8 mm with bleeding on probing. Radiograph
shows moderate bone loss. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periodontal abscess [CORRECT]
C. Pericoronitis
D. Gingival abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Periodontal abscess presents with localized swelling, purulent drainage, deep probing
depths, and bone loss associated with periodontitis. Option A (periapical) would show periapical
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radiolucency. Option C (pericoronitis) involves an operculum over a partially erupted tooth.
Option D (gingival) is confined to gingiva without attachment loss.
Q5: A 22-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival enlargement. Medical history
reveals the patient is taking cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which of the following
is the MOST likely cause of the gingival enlargement?
A. Vitamin C deficiency
B. Drug-influenced gingival enlargement [CORRECT]
C. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis
D. Plaque-induced gingivitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cyclosporine is a known cause of drug-influenced gingival enlargement. While
plaque exacerbates the condition, the primary etiology is the medication. Option A causes
scurvy-related changes. Option C is genetic. Option D causes inflammation but not the fibrous
enlargement seen here.
Q6: During an oral cancer screening, a clinician notes a solitary, well-circumscribed, fluctuant
swelling on the ventral surface of the tongue that appears blue and translucent. The patient
reports it has been present for 2 weeks and fluctuates in size. What is the MOST likely
diagnosis?
A. Mucocele (Ranula) [CORRECT]
B. Hemangioma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Lymphoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A fluctuant, fluid-filled lesion on the ventral tongue is characteristic of a ranula
(mucocele). Option B (hemangioma) does not typically fluctuate rapidly and blanches. Option C
(cancer) is typically indurated and non-fluctuant. Option D presents as a solid mass.
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Q7: (Radiographic Interpretation) A periapical radiograph of tooth #14 reveals a "spiking" root
resorption pattern and obliteration of the pulp chamber. The patient has a history of orthodontic
treatment 5 years ago. No caries or periapical radiolucency is noted. What is the MOST likely
interpretation?
A. Internal resorption
B. External cervical resorption
C. Age-related calcification and orthodontic-induced resorption [CORRECT]
D. Periapical cyst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Orthodontic treatment can lead to root resorption and pulpal obliteration. Without
symptoms or periapical pathology, this is a sequela of past treatment. Option A shows a balloon-
like expansion within the canal. Option B shows a radiolucent area in the cervical region.
Q8: A patient presents with a positive Tollison test and reports using oral tobacco (snuff) for 10
years. Clinical examination reveals a white, wrinkled lesion in the mandibular vestibule that
cannot be wiped off. This finding is MOST consistent with:
A. Lichen planus
B. Smokeless tobacco keratosis [CORRECT]
C. Pseudomembranous candidiasis
D. Leukoplakia (idiopathic)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The location (vestibule) and appearance (white, wrinkled) in a smokeless tobacco user
are diagnostic for smokeless tobacco keratosis. Option A (lichen planus) has reticular striae.
Option C can be wiped off. Option D is a diagnosis of exclusion.
Q9: (Periodontal Charting Scenario)
Clinical Data:
Tooth #3: Probing depths: MB 6mm, B 5mm, DB 7mm, P 3mm, ML 4mm, L 3mm, DL 6mm.
