1
ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Verified
Answers | Graded A+ & Updated to Latest Clinical
Standards | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Assessment and Diagnosis (20 questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old male patient presents for a comprehensive dental examination. His
medical history includes uncontrolled hypertension (BP 160/100 mmHg) and type 2
diabetes (HbA1c 9.2%). He reports taking lisinopril and metformin. Which of the following
is the MOST appropriate initial action?
A. Proceed with routine prophylaxis and radiographic examination
B. Defer elective dental treatment and refer for medical evaluation of blood pressure and glucose
control [CORRECT]
C. Administer local anesthesia with epinephrine and proceed with treatment
D. Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg TID for 7 days before dental treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hypertension (BP >160/100 mmHg) and poorly controlled diabetes
(HbA1c >9%) increase the risk of medical emergencies and complications during dental
treatment. Elective dental procedures should be deferred until the patient's medical conditions are
optimized. [CORRECT] Option A is incorrect because uncontrolled medical conditions increase
risks during dental treatment. Option C is incorrect because epinephrine can exacerbate
hypertension. Option D is incorrect because antibiotic prophylaxis is not indicated for
uncontrolled medical conditions without infection.
Q2: A 60-year-old female patient reports taking alendronate (Fosamax) orally for
osteoporosis for the past 5 years. She requires extraction of tooth #30 due to advanced
periodontal disease. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration?
A. The patient should discontinue alendronate 1 week before extraction
B. Risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) [CORRECT]
C. Alendronate has no effect on dental treatment
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required for all extractions in patients taking bisphosphonates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates, such as alendronate, increase the risk of MRONJ, particularly
,2
after invasive dental procedures like extractions. The risk is lower with oral bisphosphonates
compared to intravenous bisphosphonates but still significant. [CORRECT] Option A is
incorrect because discontinuing oral bisphosphonates does not eliminate the risk of MRONJ and
should be discussed with the patient's physician. Option C is incorrect because bisphosphonates
do affect dental treatment planning. Option D is incorrect because antibiotic prophylaxis is not
routinely indicated for patients taking bisphosphonates unless there is an active infection.
Q3: A panoramic radiograph of a 25-year-old patient reveals a well-defined, corticated
radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted mandibular third molar. This
radiographic finding is MOST consistent with:
A. Periapical cyst (radicular cyst)
B. Dentigerous cyst [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) is characterized by a well-defined radiolucency
surrounding the crown of an unerupted tooth, attached at the cementoenamel junction.
[CORRECT] Option A (periapical cyst) is associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth. Option
C (odontogenic keratocyst) may appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but is not
typically associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth. Option D (ameloblastoma) often
presents as a multilocular radiolucency with soap-bubble appearance and is more aggressive.
Q4: A 35-year-old patient presents with a 2-day history of swelling, pain, and purulent
drainage from the gingival margin of tooth #19. Clinical examination reveals a probing
depth of 8 mm with bleeding on probing. The radiograph shows moderate bone loss around
the tooth. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periodontal abscess [CORRECT]
C. Pericoronitis
D. Gingival abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A periodontal abscess presents with localized swelling, pain, purulent drainage, deep
probing depths, and bone loss associated with periodontitis. [CORRECT] Option A (periapical
abscess) would show a periapical radiolucency on the radiograph. Option C (pericoronitis)
involves inflammation of the operculum over a partially erupted tooth, typically a third molar.
Option D (gingival abscess) is confined to the gingiva without attachment loss.
,3
Q5: A 50-year-old patient presents with generalized moderate chronic periodontitis. The
initial phase of periodontal therapy should include:
A. Full mouth extraction and immediate dentures
B. Scaling and root planing, oral hygiene instruction, and re-evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Systemic antibiotics without local therapy
D. Periodontal surgery as first-line treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initial therapy for chronic periodontitis includes non-surgical scaling and root
planing, oral hygiene instruction, and re-evaluation in 4-6 weeks to assess the response to
treatment. [CORRECT] Option A is incorrect because extraction is not the first-line treatment
for periodontitis. Option C is incorrect because systemic antibiotics alone are insufficient without
mechanical debridement. Option D is incorrect because surgery is considered only after non-
surgical therapy fails to resolve the condition.
Q6: A panoramic radiograph reveals a mixed radiopaque-radiolucent lesion in the
posterior mandible with a "soap-bubble" appearance. This radiographic finding is MOST
consistent with:
A. Odontogenic myxoma
B. Ameloblastoma [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Central giant cell granuloma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ameloblastoma often presents as a multilocular radiolucency with a "soap-bubble" or
"honeycomb" appearance, typically in the posterior mandible. [CORRECT] Option A
(odontogenic myxoma) may appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but lacks the
classic soap-bubble appearance. Option C (odontogenic keratocyst) typically appears as a
unilocular radiolucency with a scalloped border. Option D (central giant cell granuloma) may
appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but is not typically associated with the soap-
bubble pattern.
Q7: A 30-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of tooth sensitivity to cold.
Clinical examination reveals cervical abrasion lesions on teeth #6-11. The MOST likely
cause of these lesions is:
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A. Bruxism
B. Aggressive toothbrushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush [CORRECT]
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Acid reflux disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical abrasion lesions are commonly caused by aggressive toothbrushing with a
hard-bristled toothbrush, leading to mechanical wear of the tooth structure at the cervical margin.
[CORRECT] Option A (bruxism) typically causes occlusal wear or abfraction lesions. Option C
(bulimia) and Option D (acid reflux) cause erosion, which affects the entire tooth surface rather
than localized cervical abrasion.
Q8: A 40-year-old patient presents with a white, non-scrapable lesion on the buccal mucosa
that has been present for 3 months. The lesion is asymptomatic. The MOST likely diagnosis
is:
A. Candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia [CORRECT]
C. Lichen planus
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leukoplakia is a white, non-scrapable lesion that cannot be classified clinically or
pathologically as any other disease. It is considered a premalignant lesion. [CORRECT] Option
A (candidiasis) is typically scrapable. Option C (lichen planus) often presents with reticular
white lines and may be symptomatic. Option D (squamous cell carcinoma) may present as an
ulcerated or indurated lesion rather than a white patch.
Q9: A 20-year-old patient presents with a 1-week history of fever, sore throat, and multiple
ulcerated lesions on the gingiva and buccal mucosa. The lesions are covered with a grayish
pseudomembrane. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Aphthous stomatitis
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) [CORRECT]
D. Oral candidiasis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) presents with fever, sore throat, and
ulcerated lesions covered with a grayish pseudomembrane, typically affecting the interdental
papillae and marginal gingiva. [CORRECT] Option A (aphthous stomatitis) presents as
ADEX CSCE OSCE Exam 2026/2027 Actual Exam |
100 Actual Exam Questions with 100% Verified
Answers | Graded A+ & Updated to Latest Clinical
Standards | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Patient Assessment and Diagnosis (20 questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old male patient presents for a comprehensive dental examination. His
medical history includes uncontrolled hypertension (BP 160/100 mmHg) and type 2
diabetes (HbA1c 9.2%). He reports taking lisinopril and metformin. Which of the following
is the MOST appropriate initial action?
A. Proceed with routine prophylaxis and radiographic examination
B. Defer elective dental treatment and refer for medical evaluation of blood pressure and glucose
control [CORRECT]
C. Administer local anesthesia with epinephrine and proceed with treatment
D. Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg TID for 7 days before dental treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled hypertension (BP >160/100 mmHg) and poorly controlled diabetes
(HbA1c >9%) increase the risk of medical emergencies and complications during dental
treatment. Elective dental procedures should be deferred until the patient's medical conditions are
optimized. [CORRECT] Option A is incorrect because uncontrolled medical conditions increase
risks during dental treatment. Option C is incorrect because epinephrine can exacerbate
hypertension. Option D is incorrect because antibiotic prophylaxis is not indicated for
uncontrolled medical conditions without infection.
Q2: A 60-year-old female patient reports taking alendronate (Fosamax) orally for
osteoporosis for the past 5 years. She requires extraction of tooth #30 due to advanced
periodontal disease. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration?
A. The patient should discontinue alendronate 1 week before extraction
B. Risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) [CORRECT]
C. Alendronate has no effect on dental treatment
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required for all extractions in patients taking bisphosphonates
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oral bisphosphonates, such as alendronate, increase the risk of MRONJ, particularly
,2
after invasive dental procedures like extractions. The risk is lower with oral bisphosphonates
compared to intravenous bisphosphonates but still significant. [CORRECT] Option A is
incorrect because discontinuing oral bisphosphonates does not eliminate the risk of MRONJ and
should be discussed with the patient's physician. Option C is incorrect because bisphosphonates
do affect dental treatment planning. Option D is incorrect because antibiotic prophylaxis is not
routinely indicated for patients taking bisphosphonates unless there is an active infection.
Q3: A panoramic radiograph of a 25-year-old patient reveals a well-defined, corticated
radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted mandibular third molar. This
radiographic finding is MOST consistent with:
A. Periapical cyst (radicular cyst)
B. Dentigerous cyst [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Ameloblastoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) is characterized by a well-defined radiolucency
surrounding the crown of an unerupted tooth, attached at the cementoenamel junction.
[CORRECT] Option A (periapical cyst) is associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth. Option
C (odontogenic keratocyst) may appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but is not
typically associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth. Option D (ameloblastoma) often
presents as a multilocular radiolucency with soap-bubble appearance and is more aggressive.
Q4: A 35-year-old patient presents with a 2-day history of swelling, pain, and purulent
drainage from the gingival margin of tooth #19. Clinical examination reveals a probing
depth of 8 mm with bleeding on probing. The radiograph shows moderate bone loss around
the tooth. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Periapical abscess
B. Periodontal abscess [CORRECT]
C. Pericoronitis
D. Gingival abscess
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A periodontal abscess presents with localized swelling, pain, purulent drainage, deep
probing depths, and bone loss associated with periodontitis. [CORRECT] Option A (periapical
abscess) would show a periapical radiolucency on the radiograph. Option C (pericoronitis)
involves inflammation of the operculum over a partially erupted tooth, typically a third molar.
Option D (gingival abscess) is confined to the gingiva without attachment loss.
,3
Q5: A 50-year-old patient presents with generalized moderate chronic periodontitis. The
initial phase of periodontal therapy should include:
A. Full mouth extraction and immediate dentures
B. Scaling and root planing, oral hygiene instruction, and re-evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Systemic antibiotics without local therapy
D. Periodontal surgery as first-line treatment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initial therapy for chronic periodontitis includes non-surgical scaling and root
planing, oral hygiene instruction, and re-evaluation in 4-6 weeks to assess the response to
treatment. [CORRECT] Option A is incorrect because extraction is not the first-line treatment
for periodontitis. Option C is incorrect because systemic antibiotics alone are insufficient without
mechanical debridement. Option D is incorrect because surgery is considered only after non-
surgical therapy fails to resolve the condition.
Q6: A panoramic radiograph reveals a mixed radiopaque-radiolucent lesion in the
posterior mandible with a "soap-bubble" appearance. This radiographic finding is MOST
consistent with:
A. Odontogenic myxoma
B. Ameloblastoma [CORRECT]
C. Odontogenic keratocyst
D. Central giant cell granuloma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ameloblastoma often presents as a multilocular radiolucency with a "soap-bubble" or
"honeycomb" appearance, typically in the posterior mandible. [CORRECT] Option A
(odontogenic myxoma) may appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but lacks the
classic soap-bubble appearance. Option C (odontogenic keratocyst) typically appears as a
unilocular radiolucency with a scalloped border. Option D (central giant cell granuloma) may
appear as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency but is not typically associated with the soap-
bubble pattern.
Q7: A 30-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of tooth sensitivity to cold.
Clinical examination reveals cervical abrasion lesions on teeth #6-11. The MOST likely
cause of these lesions is:
, 4
A. Bruxism
B. Aggressive toothbrushing with a hard-bristled toothbrush [CORRECT]
C. Bulimia nervosa
D. Acid reflux disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical abrasion lesions are commonly caused by aggressive toothbrushing with a
hard-bristled toothbrush, leading to mechanical wear of the tooth structure at the cervical margin.
[CORRECT] Option A (bruxism) typically causes occlusal wear or abfraction lesions. Option C
(bulimia) and Option D (acid reflux) cause erosion, which affects the entire tooth surface rather
than localized cervical abrasion.
Q8: A 40-year-old patient presents with a white, non-scrapable lesion on the buccal mucosa
that has been present for 3 months. The lesion is asymptomatic. The MOST likely diagnosis
is:
A. Candidiasis
B. Leukoplakia [CORRECT]
C. Lichen planus
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leukoplakia is a white, non-scrapable lesion that cannot be classified clinically or
pathologically as any other disease. It is considered a premalignant lesion. [CORRECT] Option
A (candidiasis) is typically scrapable. Option C (lichen planus) often presents with reticular
white lines and may be symptomatic. Option D (squamous cell carcinoma) may present as an
ulcerated or indurated lesion rather than a white patch.
Q9: A 20-year-old patient presents with a 1-week history of fever, sore throat, and multiple
ulcerated lesions on the gingiva and buccal mucosa. The lesions are covered with a grayish
pseudomembrane. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
A. Aphthous stomatitis
B. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) [CORRECT]
D. Oral candidiasis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) presents with fever, sore throat, and
ulcerated lesions covered with a grayish pseudomembrane, typically affecting the interdental
papillae and marginal gingiva. [CORRECT] Option A (aphthous stomatitis) presents as
