NSG 6998 APEA PREDICTOR EXAM 1 | QUESTIONS
AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |
LATEST UPDATE GRADED A+
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hypokalaemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalaemia
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, putting patients at risk for
hypokalaemia.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which
finding is most indicative of DVT?
A. Bilateral leg edema
B. Unilateral leg swelling and tenderness
C. Warmth in both legs
D. Numbness in the feet
Answer: B. Unilateral leg swelling and tenderness
Rationale: DVT commonly presents as swelling, pain, and warmth in one leg.
3. A 10-year-old child presents with a barking cough and stridor. Which condition is
most likely?
A. Asthma
B. Croup
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B. Croup
Rationale: Croup typically presents in children with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and
hoarseness.
4. The nurse is teaching a patient about metformin. Which statement indicates the
patient understands the teaching?
A. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
B. “I can stop it if my blood sugar is normal.”
C. “It may cause high blood pressure.”
D. “It should be taken only in the morning.”
,Answer: A. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
Rationale: Metformin is better tolerated when taken with meals; it does not typically affect
blood pressure.
5. Which lab result is most important to monitor in a patient taking warfarin?
A. Creatinine
B. INR
C. Hemoglobin
D. WBC
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR (International Normalized Ratio) monitors the effectiveness and safety of
warfarin therapy.
6. A patient with COPD reports increasing dyspnea and productive cough. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen per protocol
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess vital signs and lung sounds
D. Encourage coughing exercises
Answer: C. Assess vital signs and lung sounds
Rationale: Initial assessment guides the urgency and type of intervention for COPD
exacerbation.
7. A patient receiving digoxin has an apical pulse of 48 bpm. What is the best nursing
action?
A. Administer digoxin as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give a diuretic
D. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes
Answer: B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; holding the dose and notifying the provider
prevents complications.
8. A nurse is teaching a parent about acetaminophen dosing for a child. Which statement
is correct?
A. “Give 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours as needed.”
B. “Give 50 mg/kg daily in divided doses.”
C. “You can give 30 mg/kg every 2 hours.”
D. “Dosing is not based on weight.”
Answer: A. “Give 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours as needed.”
Rationale: Acetaminophen is dosed based on weight to ensure safety and efficacy in children.
, 9. A patient with type 1 diabetes is experiencing shakiness, sweating, and confusion.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Check blood glucose
B. Administer insulin
C. Call the provider
D. Encourage exercise
Answer: A. Check blood glucose
Rationale: Hypoglycaemia is likely; confirming blood glucose is the priority before
treatment.
10. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect requires
immediate reporting?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Facial swelling
D. Fatigue
Answer: C. Facial swelling
Rationale: Angioedema is a serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors and requires immediate
intervention.
11. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which symptom indicates worsening
fluid overload?
A. Dry cough
B. Peripheral edema
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension
Answer: B. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Fluid retention in heart failure often presents as peripheral edema and weight
gain.
12. A patient with asthma uses a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler. Which effect is
expected?
A. Long-term airway remodelling
B. Immediate bronchodilation
C. Reduced inflammation over weeks
D. Increased mucus production
Answer: B. Immediate bronchodilation
Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists provide rapid relief by relaxing bronchial smooth
muscles.
, 13. A 6-month-old infant presents with a fever and ear tugging. Which is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Otitis media
B. Tonsillitis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Gastroenteritis
Answer: A. Otitis media
Rationale: Infants with ear infections may present with fever, irritability, and ear tugging.
14. Which lab is most important to monitor in a patient receiving heparin therapy?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hematocrit
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) monitors therapeutic heparin levels
to prevent bleeding complications.
15. A patient is prescribed albuterol and inhaled corticosteroid. Which statement by the
patient indicates understanding?
A. “I should take the corticosteroid first for immediate relief.”
B. “I should rinse my mouth after the corticosteroid to prevent thrush.”
C. “I can skip the inhaler if I feel fine.”
D. “Albuterol should be used only once a week.”
Answer: B. “I should rinse my mouth after the corticosteroid to prevent thrush.”
Rationale: Rinsing the mouth reduces the risk of oral fungal infections from inhaled
corticosteroids.
16. A patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is
the priority action?
A. Obtain a chest X-ray
B. Administer aspirin and notify provider
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Monitor blood pressure
Answer: B. Administer aspirin and notify provider
Rationale: These are immediate interventions for suspected myocardial infarction to reduce
clot formation and damage.
17. A 2-year-old is experiencing dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES |
LATEST UPDATE GRADED A+
1. A 55-year-old patient with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. Which
electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hypokalaemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalaemia
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics increase potassium excretion, putting patients at risk for
hypokalaemia.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which
finding is most indicative of DVT?
A. Bilateral leg edema
B. Unilateral leg swelling and tenderness
C. Warmth in both legs
D. Numbness in the feet
Answer: B. Unilateral leg swelling and tenderness
Rationale: DVT commonly presents as swelling, pain, and warmth in one leg.
3. A 10-year-old child presents with a barking cough and stridor. Which condition is
most likely?
A. Asthma
B. Croup
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
Answer: B. Croup
Rationale: Croup typically presents in children with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and
hoarseness.
4. The nurse is teaching a patient about metformin. Which statement indicates the
patient understands the teaching?
A. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
B. “I can stop it if my blood sugar is normal.”
C. “It may cause high blood pressure.”
D. “It should be taken only in the morning.”
,Answer: A. “I should take it with food to reduce stomach upset.”
Rationale: Metformin is better tolerated when taken with meals; it does not typically affect
blood pressure.
5. Which lab result is most important to monitor in a patient taking warfarin?
A. Creatinine
B. INR
C. Hemoglobin
D. WBC
Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR (International Normalized Ratio) monitors the effectiveness and safety of
warfarin therapy.
6. A patient with COPD reports increasing dyspnea and productive cough. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen per protocol
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess vital signs and lung sounds
D. Encourage coughing exercises
Answer: C. Assess vital signs and lung sounds
Rationale: Initial assessment guides the urgency and type of intervention for COPD
exacerbation.
7. A patient receiving digoxin has an apical pulse of 48 bpm. What is the best nursing
action?
A. Administer digoxin as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Give a diuretic
D. Recheck the pulse in 30 minutes
Answer: B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia; holding the dose and notifying the provider
prevents complications.
8. A nurse is teaching a parent about acetaminophen dosing for a child. Which statement
is correct?
A. “Give 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours as needed.”
B. “Give 50 mg/kg daily in divided doses.”
C. “You can give 30 mg/kg every 2 hours.”
D. “Dosing is not based on weight.”
Answer: A. “Give 15 mg/kg every 4–6 hours as needed.”
Rationale: Acetaminophen is dosed based on weight to ensure safety and efficacy in children.
, 9. A patient with type 1 diabetes is experiencing shakiness, sweating, and confusion.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Check blood glucose
B. Administer insulin
C. Call the provider
D. Encourage exercise
Answer: A. Check blood glucose
Rationale: Hypoglycaemia is likely; confirming blood glucose is the priority before
treatment.
10. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which side effect requires
immediate reporting?
A. Dry cough
B. Dizziness
C. Facial swelling
D. Fatigue
Answer: C. Facial swelling
Rationale: Angioedema is a serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitors and requires immediate
intervention.
11. A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which symptom indicates worsening
fluid overload?
A. Dry cough
B. Peripheral edema
C. Weight loss
D. Hypotension
Answer: B. Peripheral edema
Rationale: Fluid retention in heart failure often presents as peripheral edema and weight
gain.
12. A patient with asthma uses a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler. Which effect is
expected?
A. Long-term airway remodelling
B. Immediate bronchodilation
C. Reduced inflammation over weeks
D. Increased mucus production
Answer: B. Immediate bronchodilation
Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists provide rapid relief by relaxing bronchial smooth
muscles.
, 13. A 6-month-old infant presents with a fever and ear tugging. Which is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Otitis media
B. Tonsillitis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Gastroenteritis
Answer: A. Otitis media
Rationale: Infants with ear infections may present with fever, irritability, and ear tugging.
14. Which lab is most important to monitor in a patient receiving heparin therapy?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Hematocrit
Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) monitors therapeutic heparin levels
to prevent bleeding complications.
15. A patient is prescribed albuterol and inhaled corticosteroid. Which statement by the
patient indicates understanding?
A. “I should take the corticosteroid first for immediate relief.”
B. “I should rinse my mouth after the corticosteroid to prevent thrush.”
C. “I can skip the inhaler if I feel fine.”
D. “Albuterol should be used only once a week.”
Answer: B. “I should rinse my mouth after the corticosteroid to prevent thrush.”
Rationale: Rinsing the mouth reduces the risk of oral fungal infections from inhaled
corticosteroids.
16. A patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is
the priority action?
A. Obtain a chest X-ray
B. Administer aspirin and notify provider
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Monitor blood pressure
Answer: B. Administer aspirin and notify provider
Rationale: These are immediate interventions for suspected myocardial infarction to reduce
clot formation and damage.
17. A 2-year-old is experiencing dehydration. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Dry mucous membranes
B. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
