CERTIFICATION GUIDE QUESTIONS AND
100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
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1. A contracting officer is preparing to award a sole-source contract exceeding the
simplified acquisition threshold. What document must be completed and approved
prior to negotiation?
A. Price Negotiation Memorandum (PNM)
B. Determination & Findings (D&F)
C. Justification & Approval (J&A)
D. Acquisition Plan
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Justification & Approval (J&A) is required to justify and authorize
sole-source acquisitions before negotiations begin, ensuring compliance with
competition requirements.
2. Which document formally records the principal elements of a negotiated
agreement, including cost analysis and profit determination?
A. SF-26
B. PNM
C. SF-30
D. D&F
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Price Negotiation Memorandum (PNM) documents negotiation
details, including pricing rationale and final agreed terms.
3. A modification is issued to change the delivery schedule of an existing contract.
Which form is used?
A. SF-26
B. SF-1449
C. SF-30
D. DD-254
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SF-30 is used for contract amendments and modifications, including
administrative and substantive changes.
4. When is certified cost or price data required?
A. For all contracts
B. Only for commercial items
C. When no adequate price competition exists and thresholds are exceeded
D. Only for firm-fixed-price contracts
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Certified cost or price data is required when competition is lacking and
the value exceeds the threshold unless an exception applies.
5. A contracting officer documents a business decision that deviates from standard
procedures. Which document is appropriate?
A. Acquisition Plan
B. D&F
C. PNM
D. J&A
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Determination & Findings (D&F) records special decisions or
deviations and provides justification.
6. What is the primary purpose of the SF-26 form?
A. Contract modification
B. Contract award
C. Cost analysis
D. Negotiation summary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SF-26 is the Award/Contract form used to officially execute a contract.
7. Which of the following best defines “adequate price competition”?
A. One offer received
B. Two or more responsible offerors competing independently
C. Lowest price offered
D. Government estimate comparison
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Adequate price competition exists when at least two independent,
responsible offerors submit offers.
8. A contractor submits cost data that is later found to be inaccurate. What is the
potential consequence?
A. Contract termination for convenience
B. Price adjustment under defective pricing
C. Automatic contract renewal
D. No consequence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Defective pricing provisions allow the government to adjust contract
price if certified data is inaccurate.
, 9. Which document supports the rationale for selecting a particular contract type?
A. PNM
B. Acquisition Plan
C. SF-30
D. Invoice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Acquisition Plan includes justification for contract type selection
based on risk and requirements.
10. What is the key objective of a Price Negotiation Memorandum?
A. Approve funding
B. Record negotiation outcomes and pricing rationale
C. Modify contract terms
D. Issue solicitation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PNM ensures transparency and documentation of negotiation
decisions.
11. A contract is awarded without competition due to urgency. What must be
included in the J&A?
A. Contractor performance history
B. Detailed justification for urgency
C. Final invoice
D. Technical drawings
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The J&A must clearly explain the urgency and why competition is not
feasible.