[PASS GUARANTEED] ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED EXAM | 300+ NGN QUESTIONS
COVERING PRENATAL, LABOR, POSTPARTUM &
NEWBORN CARE
This elite-level study resource is specifically engineered for nursing students preparing for
the ATI RN Maternal Newborn Content Mastery Series (CMS) Proctored Exam. It
bridges the gap between basic textbook knowledge and the complex clinical judgment
required to achieve a Level 3 proficiency score.
1. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden painless vaginal bleeding. The
nurse suspects:
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A. Placenta previa
Rationale: Painless bright red bleeding is characteristic of placenta previa.
2. A client with placental abruption will most likely present with:
A. Painless bleeding
B. Severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
C. No bleeding
D. Increased fetal movement
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Answer: B. Severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness
Rationale: Abruption causes painful bleeding with a firm uterus.
3. The nurse identifies early decelerations on fetal monitoring. What is the cause?
A. Umbilical cord compression
B. Head compression
C. Placental insufficiency
D. Maternal hypotension
Answer: B. Head compression
Rationale: Early decelerations mirror contractions and are benign.
4. Late decelerations indicate:
A. Fetal hypoxia due to uteroplacental insufficiency
B. Normal finding
C. Cord compression
D. Maternal fever
Answer: A. Fetal hypoxia due to uteroplacental insufficiency
Rationale: Late decels are concerning and require intervention.
5. Variable decelerations are caused by:
A. Head compression
B. Placental insufficiency
C. Umbilical cord compression
D. Maternal dehydration
Answer: C. Umbilical cord compression
Rationale: Variable decels are abrupt and vary in timing due to cord issues.
6. The first stage of labor ends when:
A. Contractions begin
B. Cervix is fully dilated (10 cm)
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C. Baby is delivered
D. Placenta is delivered
Answer: B. Cervix is fully dilated (10 cm)
Rationale: Stage 1 is dilation and effacement.
7. A priority intervention for late decelerations is:
A. Encourage pushing
B. Turn client to side and administer oxygen
C. Increase oxytocin
D. Give oral fluids
Answer: B. Turn client to side and administer oxygen
Rationale: Improves uteroplacental perfusion.
8. Magnesium sulfate is administered for:
A. Inducing labor
B. Preventing seizures in preeclampsia
C. Treating infection
D. Pain relief
Answer: B. Preventing seizures in preeclampsia
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used for seizure prophylaxis.
9. Signs of magnesium toxicity include:
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Respiratory depression and absent reflexes
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
Answer: B. Respiratory depression and absent reflexes
Rationale: Toxicity suppresses CNS and respiratory system.
10. The antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity is:
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Insulin
D. Epinephrine
Answer: B. Calcium gluconate
Rationale: Reverses magnesium effects.
11. A client in labor requests pain relief. The safest time for epidural is:
A. Before labor begins
B. Active labor (≥4 cm dilation)
C. After delivery
D. Immediately at 1 cm dilation
Answer: B. Active labor (≥4 cm dilation)
Rationale: Reduces risk of slowing labor.
12. A newborn’s normal heart rate is:
A. 60–80 bpm
B. 100–160 bpm
C. 170–200 bpm
D. 40–60 bpm
Answer: B. 100–160 bpm
Rationale: Normal neonatal heart rate range.
13. APGAR score is assessed at:
A. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
B. Immediately only
C. 10 minutes only
D. 30 minutes
Answer: A. 1 and 5 minutes after birth
Rationale: Evaluates newborn adaptation.