NURS 5432 FINAL EXAM TEST BANK NEWEST WITH COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS| BRAND NEW VERSION!!!
Question 1
At what age is it recommended for an elderly patient to receive the Prevnar 13 (PCV13)
vaccination according to standard geriatric guidelines?
A) Age 50 and older
B) Age 55 and older
C) Age 60 and older
D) Age 65 and older
E) Age 70 and older
Correct Answer: D) Age 65 and older
Rationale: Standard immunization schedules for older adults recommend the initiation of
the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevnar 13) at age 65 to prevent invasive
pneumococcal disease.
Question 2
Which age is recommended for an elderly patient to receive the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide
Vaccination (PPSV23)?
A) Age 50 and older
B) Age 65 and older
C) Only if they have a chronic illness
D) Every 5 years starting at age 40
E) Age 75 and older
Correct Answer: B) Age 65 and older
Rationale: PPSV23 is recommended for all adults aged 65 years and older to provide
broader protection against various strains of pneumonia.
Question 3
According to the provided exam material, at what age is the Shingrix (Zoster) vaccination
recommended for elderly patients?
A) Age 40 and older
B) Age 50 and older
C) Age 55 and older
D) Age 59 and older
E) Age 65 and older
Correct Answer: D) Age 59 and older
Rationale: The provided material identifies age 59 and older as the recommended age for
Shingrix to prevent herpes zoster and its complications.
Question 4
How many doses are required to complete the Shingrix vaccination series?
A) 1 dose
, 2
B) 2 doses
C) 3 doses
D) 4 doses
E) A dose every 10 years
Correct Answer: B) 2 doses
Rationale: Shingrix is a non-live recombinant vaccine administered in a two-dose series to
ensure maximum efficacy.
Question 5
What is the recommended timeframe between the first and second dose of the Shingrix vaccine?
A) 1 month apart
B) 2-6 months apart
C) 6-12 months apart
D) Exactly 1 year apart
E) 5 years apart
Correct Answer: B) 2-6 months apart
Rationale: To achieve optimal immune response, the second dose of Shingrix should be
administered between two and six months after the initial dose.
Question 6
How frequently should an older adult receive the influenza vaccine?
A) Once every 5 years
B) Once at age 65
C) Every 10 years
D) Annually (every fall)
E) Every spring
Correct Answer: D) Annually (every fall)
Rationale: Due to the mutation of influenza virus strains, annual vaccination in the fall is
required to protect the elderly from seasonal flu.
Question 7
How often should an adult receive a Tdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis) booster shot?
A) Every year
B) Every 2 years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 years
E) Only once in a lifetime
Correct Answer: D) Every 10 years
Rationale: After the initial Tdap series, a booster (either Tdap or Td) is required every 10
years to maintain immunity against tetanus and diphtheria.
, 3
Question 8
What is considered the normal BMI range specifically for older adults (geriatric population)?
A) 18.5-24.9
B) 23-30
C) 25-35
D) 30-45
E) 15-20
Correct Answer: B) 23-30
Rationale: Standard BMI ranges are often adjusted higher for the elderly; a range of 23-30
is associated with better health outcomes and lower mortality in the geriatric population.
Question 9
In the elderly, malnutrition risk is identified by which of the following weight loss parameters?
A) > 1% weight loss in 1 month
B) > 2% weight loss in 3 months
C) > 5% weight loss in 1 month
D) > 5% weight loss in 12 months
E) > 20% weight loss in 1 month
Correct Answer: C) > 5% weight loss in 1 month
Rationale: Acute, significant weight loss of more than 5% within a single month is a major
red flag for malnutrition in older adults.
Question 10
A patient is at risk for malnutrition if they lose more than 10% of their body weight within what
timeframe?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 10 months
E) 1 year
Correct Answer: C) 6 months
Rationale: Losing more than 10% of body weight over a 6-month period is a clinical
indicator of high malnutrition risk.
Question 11
In the "Get Up and Go" test, a score of how many seconds is considered normal for an older
adult to be considered mobile and safe?
A) < 5 seconds
B) < 10 seconds
C) < 12 seconds
D) < 20 seconds
, 4
E) < 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C) < 12 seconds
Rationale: Completing the Get Up and Go test in less than 12 seconds indicates that the
patient has adequate balance and mobility with a lower risk for falls.
Question 12
Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 main physiological factors that alter drug
distribution in older adults?
A) Increased body fat
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Decreased body water
D) Reduced serum albumin
E) Increased serum creatinine
Correct Answer: E) Increased serum creatinine
Rationale: Drug distribution is primarily affected by body composition (fat/lean
mass/water) and protein binding (albumin). Creatinine affects excretion, not distribution.
Question 13
What is the clinical consequence of increased adipose tissue in older adults regarding fat-soluble
medications?
A) They are excreted more rapidly
B) They accumulate in the fat leading to prolonged effects
C) They remain in the plasma leading to toxicity
D) They are not absorbed in the GI tract
E) They require a higher dose to achieve any effect
Correct Answer: B) They accumulate in the fat leading to prolonged effects
Rationale: Because older adults have an increased percentage of body fat, fat-soluble drugs
(like diazepam) have a larger volume of distribution, leading to a longer half-life and
prolonged effects.
Question 14
Which of the following statements is true regarding hepatic metabolism in the aging patient?
A) Hepatic metabolism increases with age
B) Hepatic metabolism remains stable throughout the lifespan
C) Hepatic metabolism decreases with age
D) Liver size increases, making metabolism faster
E) Hepatic blood flow increases with age
Correct Answer: C) Hepatic metabolism decreases with age
Rationale: Reductions in liver mass and hepatic blood flow result in a decrease in the liver’s
ability to metabolize drugs (Phase I reactions), which can lead to increased drug levels.
DETAILED ANSWERS| BRAND NEW VERSION!!!
Question 1
At what age is it recommended for an elderly patient to receive the Prevnar 13 (PCV13)
vaccination according to standard geriatric guidelines?
A) Age 50 and older
B) Age 55 and older
C) Age 60 and older
D) Age 65 and older
E) Age 70 and older
Correct Answer: D) Age 65 and older
Rationale: Standard immunization schedules for older adults recommend the initiation of
the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevnar 13) at age 65 to prevent invasive
pneumococcal disease.
Question 2
Which age is recommended for an elderly patient to receive the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide
Vaccination (PPSV23)?
A) Age 50 and older
B) Age 65 and older
C) Only if they have a chronic illness
D) Every 5 years starting at age 40
E) Age 75 and older
Correct Answer: B) Age 65 and older
Rationale: PPSV23 is recommended for all adults aged 65 years and older to provide
broader protection against various strains of pneumonia.
Question 3
According to the provided exam material, at what age is the Shingrix (Zoster) vaccination
recommended for elderly patients?
A) Age 40 and older
B) Age 50 and older
C) Age 55 and older
D) Age 59 and older
E) Age 65 and older
Correct Answer: D) Age 59 and older
Rationale: The provided material identifies age 59 and older as the recommended age for
Shingrix to prevent herpes zoster and its complications.
Question 4
How many doses are required to complete the Shingrix vaccination series?
A) 1 dose
, 2
B) 2 doses
C) 3 doses
D) 4 doses
E) A dose every 10 years
Correct Answer: B) 2 doses
Rationale: Shingrix is a non-live recombinant vaccine administered in a two-dose series to
ensure maximum efficacy.
Question 5
What is the recommended timeframe between the first and second dose of the Shingrix vaccine?
A) 1 month apart
B) 2-6 months apart
C) 6-12 months apart
D) Exactly 1 year apart
E) 5 years apart
Correct Answer: B) 2-6 months apart
Rationale: To achieve optimal immune response, the second dose of Shingrix should be
administered between two and six months after the initial dose.
Question 6
How frequently should an older adult receive the influenza vaccine?
A) Once every 5 years
B) Once at age 65
C) Every 10 years
D) Annually (every fall)
E) Every spring
Correct Answer: D) Annually (every fall)
Rationale: Due to the mutation of influenza virus strains, annual vaccination in the fall is
required to protect the elderly from seasonal flu.
Question 7
How often should an adult receive a Tdap (Tetanus, Diphtheria, Pertussis) booster shot?
A) Every year
B) Every 2 years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 10 years
E) Only once in a lifetime
Correct Answer: D) Every 10 years
Rationale: After the initial Tdap series, a booster (either Tdap or Td) is required every 10
years to maintain immunity against tetanus and diphtheria.
, 3
Question 8
What is considered the normal BMI range specifically for older adults (geriatric population)?
A) 18.5-24.9
B) 23-30
C) 25-35
D) 30-45
E) 15-20
Correct Answer: B) 23-30
Rationale: Standard BMI ranges are often adjusted higher for the elderly; a range of 23-30
is associated with better health outcomes and lower mortality in the geriatric population.
Question 9
In the elderly, malnutrition risk is identified by which of the following weight loss parameters?
A) > 1% weight loss in 1 month
B) > 2% weight loss in 3 months
C) > 5% weight loss in 1 month
D) > 5% weight loss in 12 months
E) > 20% weight loss in 1 month
Correct Answer: C) > 5% weight loss in 1 month
Rationale: Acute, significant weight loss of more than 5% within a single month is a major
red flag for malnutrition in older adults.
Question 10
A patient is at risk for malnutrition if they lose more than 10% of their body weight within what
timeframe?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 10 months
E) 1 year
Correct Answer: C) 6 months
Rationale: Losing more than 10% of body weight over a 6-month period is a clinical
indicator of high malnutrition risk.
Question 11
In the "Get Up and Go" test, a score of how many seconds is considered normal for an older
adult to be considered mobile and safe?
A) < 5 seconds
B) < 10 seconds
C) < 12 seconds
D) < 20 seconds
, 4
E) < 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C) < 12 seconds
Rationale: Completing the Get Up and Go test in less than 12 seconds indicates that the
patient has adequate balance and mobility with a lower risk for falls.
Question 12
Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 main physiological factors that alter drug
distribution in older adults?
A) Increased body fat
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Decreased body water
D) Reduced serum albumin
E) Increased serum creatinine
Correct Answer: E) Increased serum creatinine
Rationale: Drug distribution is primarily affected by body composition (fat/lean
mass/water) and protein binding (albumin). Creatinine affects excretion, not distribution.
Question 13
What is the clinical consequence of increased adipose tissue in older adults regarding fat-soluble
medications?
A) They are excreted more rapidly
B) They accumulate in the fat leading to prolonged effects
C) They remain in the plasma leading to toxicity
D) They are not absorbed in the GI tract
E) They require a higher dose to achieve any effect
Correct Answer: B) They accumulate in the fat leading to prolonged effects
Rationale: Because older adults have an increased percentage of body fat, fat-soluble drugs
(like diazepam) have a larger volume of distribution, leading to a longer half-life and
prolonged effects.
Question 14
Which of the following statements is true regarding hepatic metabolism in the aging patient?
A) Hepatic metabolism increases with age
B) Hepatic metabolism remains stable throughout the lifespan
C) Hepatic metabolism decreases with age
D) Liver size increases, making metabolism faster
E) Hepatic blood flow increases with age
Correct Answer: C) Hepatic metabolism decreases with age
Rationale: Reductions in liver mass and hepatic blood flow result in a decrease in the liver’s
ability to metabolize drugs (Phase I reactions), which can lead to increased drug levels.
