NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals
Midterm Exam: Controlled Substances
(2026/2027) PDF | Nur
EXAM
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. Complete NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology
Fundamentals midterm exam coverage of controlled substance schedules.
Includes Schedule II drug examples (Ativan, Valium, Fentanyl, Oxycodone,
Methadone) and Schedule III drug classifications. Essential study guide for
Chamberlain nursing students.
NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals: Controlled Substances
Practice Questions
Section 1: Controlled Substance Schedules and Classifications (Questions 1-
10)
Question 1: Which of the following is a characteristic of a Schedule I controlled
substance?
A. Accepted medical use with severe restrictions
B. No currently accepted medical use in the United States and high potential for
abuse
C. Moderate to low physical dependence potential
D. Low abuse potential compared to Schedule III substances
Correct Answer: B. No currently accepted medical use in the United States and
high potential for abuse
Rationale: Schedule I substances have no currently accepted medical use in the
United States, lack accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and have a
high potential for abuse. Examples include heroin, LSD, and marijuana (cannabis) .
Question 2: A patient is prescribed hydromorphone (Dilaudid) for severe
postoperative pain. To which schedule does this medication belong?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
,C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: A. Schedule II
Rationale: Hydromorphone is a Schedule II narcotic. Schedule II substances have a
high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical
dependence. Other Schedule II narcotics include morphine, oxycodone,
methadone, meperidine, fentanyl, and hydrocodone .
Question 3: Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule IIN
stimulant?
A. Codeine
B. Alprazolam (Xanax)
C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
D. Phenobarbital
Correct Answer: C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
Rationale: Schedule IIN stimulants include amphetamine (Dexedrine, Adderall),
methamphetamine (Desoxyn), and methylphenidate (Ritalin). Codeine is a
Schedule II narcotic; alprazolam is Schedule IV; phenobarbital is a Schedule II
substance but not a stimulant .
Question 4: A patient is prescribed a medication with moderate to low physical
dependence potential and a high psychological dependence potential. This
medication would most likely be classified as:
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: B. Schedule III
Rationale: Schedule III substances have a potential for abuse less than substances
in Schedules I or II, and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or
high psychological dependence. Examples include Tylenol with codeine and
anabolic steroids .
,Question 5: According to federal law, a Schedule II prescription:
A. May be refilled up to 5 times in 6 months
B. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C. May be refilled indefinitely with provider authorization
D. May be transferred between pharmacies once
Correct Answer: B. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
Rationale: Schedule II drugs may not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
each time. Schedule III and IV prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times in 6
months if authorized .
Question 6: Which of the following is an example of a Schedule IV controlled
substance?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
B. Oxycodone (Percocet)
C. Marijuana
D. Codeine with acetaminophen
Correct Answer: A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine classified as Schedule IV.
Oxycodone is Schedule II, marijuana is Schedule I, and codeine with
acetaminophen (Tylenol #3) is Schedule III .
Question 7: Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled
substances include:
A. Using regular paper for all prescriptions
B. Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C. Allowing patients to call in refills without documentation
D. Providing multiple refills on the first prescription
Correct Answer: B. Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for
controlled drugs
Rationale: Strategies to prevent misuse include using tamper-proof paper for
controlled substance prescriptions, utilizing chemical dependency screening tools,
and following state and federal regulations for prescribing .
, Question 8: The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for:
A. Approving new drugs for marketing
B. Regulating the official labeling of prescription drugs
C. Registering manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
D. Setting prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners
Correct Answer: C. Registering manufacturers and prescribers of controlled
substances
Rationale: The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registers
manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances. The FDA regulates drug
approval and labeling, while prescriptive authority is determined by state law .
Question 9: Which schedule drugs can APRNs prescribe?
A. Only Schedule IV and V
B. Only Schedule III and IV
C. Schedule II-V drugs, depending on state law and collaborative agreements
D. No controlled substances without physician supervision
Correct Answer: C. Schedule II-V drugs, depending on state law and
collaborative agreements
Rationale: APRNs can prescribe Schedule II-V drugs, but whether they possess full
prescriptive authority depends on their legal right to prescribe without supervisory
or collaborative requirements. Some state laws require collaboration with or
supervision by a physician, and some physicians limit the types of drugs the APRN
can prescribe .
Question 10: A prescription for a Schedule III controlled substance with refills
would be valid for a maximum of:
A. 30 days from the date written
B. 6 months from the date written
C. 12 months from the date written
D. Indefinitely until all refills are used
Correct Answer: B. 6 months from the date written
Rationale: Schedule III and IV prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times within 6
Midterm Exam: Controlled Substances
(2026/2027) PDF | Nur
EXAM
INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD. Complete NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology
Fundamentals midterm exam coverage of controlled substance schedules.
Includes Schedule II drug examples (Ativan, Valium, Fentanyl, Oxycodone,
Methadone) and Schedule III drug classifications. Essential study guide for
Chamberlain nursing students.
NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Fundamentals: Controlled Substances
Practice Questions
Section 1: Controlled Substance Schedules and Classifications (Questions 1-
10)
Question 1: Which of the following is a characteristic of a Schedule I controlled
substance?
A. Accepted medical use with severe restrictions
B. No currently accepted medical use in the United States and high potential for
abuse
C. Moderate to low physical dependence potential
D. Low abuse potential compared to Schedule III substances
Correct Answer: B. No currently accepted medical use in the United States and
high potential for abuse
Rationale: Schedule I substances have no currently accepted medical use in the
United States, lack accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and have a
high potential for abuse. Examples include heroin, LSD, and marijuana (cannabis) .
Question 2: A patient is prescribed hydromorphone (Dilaudid) for severe
postoperative pain. To which schedule does this medication belong?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
,C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: A. Schedule II
Rationale: Hydromorphone is a Schedule II narcotic. Schedule II substances have a
high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical
dependence. Other Schedule II narcotics include morphine, oxycodone,
methadone, meperidine, fentanyl, and hydrocodone .
Question 3: Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule IIN
stimulant?
A. Codeine
B. Alprazolam (Xanax)
C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
D. Phenobarbital
Correct Answer: C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
Rationale: Schedule IIN stimulants include amphetamine (Dexedrine, Adderall),
methamphetamine (Desoxyn), and methylphenidate (Ritalin). Codeine is a
Schedule II narcotic; alprazolam is Schedule IV; phenobarbital is a Schedule II
substance but not a stimulant .
Question 4: A patient is prescribed a medication with moderate to low physical
dependence potential and a high psychological dependence potential. This
medication would most likely be classified as:
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
Correct Answer: B. Schedule III
Rationale: Schedule III substances have a potential for abuse less than substances
in Schedules I or II, and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or
high psychological dependence. Examples include Tylenol with codeine and
anabolic steroids .
,Question 5: According to federal law, a Schedule II prescription:
A. May be refilled up to 5 times in 6 months
B. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
C. May be refilled indefinitely with provider authorization
D. May be transferred between pharmacies once
Correct Answer: B. May not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
Rationale: Schedule II drugs may not be refilled; a new prescription must be written
each time. Schedule III and IV prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times in 6
months if authorized .
Question 6: Which of the following is an example of a Schedule IV controlled
substance?
A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
B. Oxycodone (Percocet)
C. Marijuana
D. Codeine with acetaminophen
Correct Answer: A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine classified as Schedule IV.
Oxycodone is Schedule II, marijuana is Schedule I, and codeine with
acetaminophen (Tylenol #3) is Schedule III .
Question 7: Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled
substances include:
A. Using regular paper for all prescriptions
B. Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs
C. Allowing patients to call in refills without documentation
D. Providing multiple refills on the first prescription
Correct Answer: B. Using tamper-proof paper for all prescriptions written for
controlled drugs
Rationale: Strategies to prevent misuse include using tamper-proof paper for
controlled substance prescriptions, utilizing chemical dependency screening tools,
and following state and federal regulations for prescribing .
, Question 8: The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for:
A. Approving new drugs for marketing
B. Regulating the official labeling of prescription drugs
C. Registering manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances
D. Setting prescriptive authority for nurse practitioners
Correct Answer: C. Registering manufacturers and prescribers of controlled
substances
Rationale: The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) registers
manufacturers and prescribers of controlled substances. The FDA regulates drug
approval and labeling, while prescriptive authority is determined by state law .
Question 9: Which schedule drugs can APRNs prescribe?
A. Only Schedule IV and V
B. Only Schedule III and IV
C. Schedule II-V drugs, depending on state law and collaborative agreements
D. No controlled substances without physician supervision
Correct Answer: C. Schedule II-V drugs, depending on state law and
collaborative agreements
Rationale: APRNs can prescribe Schedule II-V drugs, but whether they possess full
prescriptive authority depends on their legal right to prescribe without supervisory
or collaborative requirements. Some state laws require collaboration with or
supervision by a physician, and some physicians limit the types of drugs the APRN
can prescribe .
Question 10: A prescription for a Schedule III controlled substance with refills
would be valid for a maximum of:
A. 30 days from the date written
B. 6 months from the date written
C. 12 months from the date written
D. Indefinitely until all refills are used
Correct Answer: B. 6 months from the date written
Rationale: Schedule III and IV prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times within 6
