NUR 185 EXAM 2 (NURSING
FUNDAMENTALS) – HONDROS COLLEGE OF
NURSING | 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS .
EXAM OVERVIEW.
This comprehensive study guide is designed for Practical Nursing students at Hondros
College of Nursing preparing for NUR 185: Concepts of Adult Health Nursing for the
Practical Nurse II, Exam 2 for the 2025/2026 academic year.
Course Information:
• Course: NUR 185 - Concepts of Adult Health Nursing for Practical Nurse II
• Term: Typically Term 4 of the Practical Nursing Program
• Credit Hours: 3 (1 lecture, 2 clinical)
• Prerequisites: All Term 1, Term 2, and Term 3 PN Courses
• Corequisites: NUR 186 (PN Comprehensive Review and NCLEX-PN Preparation)
Required Textbooks:
• Giddens, J.F. (2025). Concepts for Nursing Practice (4th ed.). Elsevier.
• Linton, A.D. & Passmore, G.G. (2025). Medical-Surgical Nursing (9th ed.). Elsevier.
• Silvestri, L.A. (2026). Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-PN Examination
(8th ed.). Elsevier.
• Mosby (2025). Mosby's 2025 Nursing Drug Reference (38th ed.). Elsevier.
• Willihnganz, M.J. & Clayton, B.D. (2026). Basic Pharmacology for Nurses (20th ed.).
Elsevier.
Section 1: Burns and Wound Care (Questions 1-20)
Q1: According to the Rule of Nines for an adult patient, what percentage of total body
surface area (TBSA) does the anterior trunk represent?
,A. 9%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• The Rule of Nines for adults assigns 18% to the anterior trunk (chest and abdomen).
The entire trunk (anterior + posterior) represents 36%.
• Each upper extremity = 9%, each lower extremity = 18%, head = 9%, posterior
trunk = 18%, perineum = 1%.
Q2: A 55-year-old patient is admitted with burns covering 35% of their total body surface
area. The patient also has evidence of inhalation injury. What is the patient's Baux Score?
A. 55
B. 90
C. 107
D. 125
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• The Baux Score is calculated as: Age + TBSA + (17 if inhalation injury present).
• For this patient: 55 (age) + 35 (TBSA) + 17 (inhalation injury) = 107.
• Scores above 100 indicate significantly increased mortality risk and correlate with
the need for specialized burn center care.
Q3: A patient presents with a scald burn from hot coffee on the forearm. The area is red,
has large fluid-filled blisters, is moist, and is extremely painful. The skin does not blanch
when pressure is applied. This burn is most likely:
A. Superficial (first-degree)
B. Superficial partial-thickness (second-degree)
,C. Deep partial-thickness (second-degree)
D. Full-thickness (third-degree)
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Superficial partial-thickness burns affect the epidermis and upper dermis.
• Characteristics include large moist blisters, severe pain, mottled appearance, and
non-blanching due to dermal involvement.
• These burns typically heal in 2-3 weeks with minimal scarring.
Q4: Which description is characteristic of a superficial (first-degree) burn?
A. Dry, waxy, leathery, painless
B. Red, moist, blistered, very painful
C. Pink, dry, painful, blanches with pressure
D. Charred, black, insensate
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Superficial (first-degree) burns involve only the epidermis.
• Characteristics include erythema (pink/red), mild to moderate pain, dryness,
absence of blisters, and blanching when pressure is applied.
• Sunburn is a common example; healing occurs in 3-7 days.
Q5: During the emergent phase of a major burn injury, the patient is at highest risk for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
, • During the emergent phase of burns, patients are at risk for hyperkalemia due to
massive cell destruction releasing potassium from damaged cells into the
extracellular fluid.
• This occurs because potassium normally resides inside cells; when cells are
destroyed, potassium leaks out.
• Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q6: What does the acronym R.A.C.E. stand for in fire emergency response?
A. Remove, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate
B. Rescue, Activate, Contain, Extinguish
C. Run, Alert, Call, Exit
D. Rescue, Alarm, Call, Evacuate
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• R.A.C.E. is the standard fire response protocol:
o Rescue anyone in immediate danger
o Activate the alarm
o Contain the fire by closing doors and windows
o Extinguish the fire if possible or Evacuate
Q7: A patient returns from surgery following a split-thickness skin graft to the lower leg.
Postoperatively, what is the priority nursing intervention for the first 3-5 days?
A. Active range of motion exercises every 2 hours
B. Strict immobilization of the grafted extremity
C. Daily dressing changes with wet-to-dry gauze
D. Ambulation as tolerated beginning day 1
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Following split-thickness skin graft surgery, the graft site must be immobilized for
3-5 days to allow for graft attachment and revascularization.
FUNDAMENTALS) – HONDROS COLLEGE OF
NURSING | 2025/2026 ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS .
EXAM OVERVIEW.
This comprehensive study guide is designed for Practical Nursing students at Hondros
College of Nursing preparing for NUR 185: Concepts of Adult Health Nursing for the
Practical Nurse II, Exam 2 for the 2025/2026 academic year.
Course Information:
• Course: NUR 185 - Concepts of Adult Health Nursing for Practical Nurse II
• Term: Typically Term 4 of the Practical Nursing Program
• Credit Hours: 3 (1 lecture, 2 clinical)
• Prerequisites: All Term 1, Term 2, and Term 3 PN Courses
• Corequisites: NUR 186 (PN Comprehensive Review and NCLEX-PN Preparation)
Required Textbooks:
• Giddens, J.F. (2025). Concepts for Nursing Practice (4th ed.). Elsevier.
• Linton, A.D. & Passmore, G.G. (2025). Medical-Surgical Nursing (9th ed.). Elsevier.
• Silvestri, L.A. (2026). Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-PN Examination
(8th ed.). Elsevier.
• Mosby (2025). Mosby's 2025 Nursing Drug Reference (38th ed.). Elsevier.
• Willihnganz, M.J. & Clayton, B.D. (2026). Basic Pharmacology for Nurses (20th ed.).
Elsevier.
Section 1: Burns and Wound Care (Questions 1-20)
Q1: According to the Rule of Nines for an adult patient, what percentage of total body
surface area (TBSA) does the anterior trunk represent?
,A. 9%
B. 14%
C. 18%
D. 22%
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• The Rule of Nines for adults assigns 18% to the anterior trunk (chest and abdomen).
The entire trunk (anterior + posterior) represents 36%.
• Each upper extremity = 9%, each lower extremity = 18%, head = 9%, posterior
trunk = 18%, perineum = 1%.
Q2: A 55-year-old patient is admitted with burns covering 35% of their total body surface
area. The patient also has evidence of inhalation injury. What is the patient's Baux Score?
A. 55
B. 90
C. 107
D. 125
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• The Baux Score is calculated as: Age + TBSA + (17 if inhalation injury present).
• For this patient: 55 (age) + 35 (TBSA) + 17 (inhalation injury) = 107.
• Scores above 100 indicate significantly increased mortality risk and correlate with
the need for specialized burn center care.
Q3: A patient presents with a scald burn from hot coffee on the forearm. The area is red,
has large fluid-filled blisters, is moist, and is extremely painful. The skin does not blanch
when pressure is applied. This burn is most likely:
A. Superficial (first-degree)
B. Superficial partial-thickness (second-degree)
,C. Deep partial-thickness (second-degree)
D. Full-thickness (third-degree)
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Superficial partial-thickness burns affect the epidermis and upper dermis.
• Characteristics include large moist blisters, severe pain, mottled appearance, and
non-blanching due to dermal involvement.
• These burns typically heal in 2-3 weeks with minimal scarring.
Q4: Which description is characteristic of a superficial (first-degree) burn?
A. Dry, waxy, leathery, painless
B. Red, moist, blistered, very painful
C. Pink, dry, painful, blanches with pressure
D. Charred, black, insensate
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Superficial (first-degree) burns involve only the epidermis.
• Characteristics include erythema (pink/red), mild to moderate pain, dryness,
absence of blisters, and blanching when pressure is applied.
• Sunburn is a common example; healing occurs in 3-7 days.
Q5: During the emergent phase of a major burn injury, the patient is at highest risk for
which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
, • During the emergent phase of burns, patients are at risk for hyperkalemia due to
massive cell destruction releasing potassium from damaged cells into the
extracellular fluid.
• This occurs because potassium normally resides inside cells; when cells are
destroyed, potassium leaks out.
• Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q6: What does the acronym R.A.C.E. stand for in fire emergency response?
A. Remove, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate
B. Rescue, Activate, Contain, Extinguish
C. Run, Alert, Call, Exit
D. Rescue, Alarm, Call, Evacuate
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• R.A.C.E. is the standard fire response protocol:
o Rescue anyone in immediate danger
o Activate the alarm
o Contain the fire by closing doors and windows
o Extinguish the fire if possible or Evacuate
Q7: A patient returns from surgery following a split-thickness skin graft to the lower leg.
Postoperatively, what is the priority nursing intervention for the first 3-5 days?
A. Active range of motion exercises every 2 hours
B. Strict immobilization of the grafted extremity
C. Daily dressing changes with wet-to-dry gauze
D. Ambulation as tolerated beginning day 1
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Rationale:
• Following split-thickness skin graft surgery, the graft site must be immobilized for
3-5 days to allow for graft attachment and revascularization.
