D115 OA READINESS 450 EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026 2027 COURSE ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY REVIEW DISEASE MECHANISMS
CLINICAL APPLICATIONS VERIFIED QUESTIONS
ACCURATE ANSWERS HIGH YIELD STUDY GUIDE
COMPLETE TEST BANK GRADED A+
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANSWER -D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - CORRECT ANSWER -C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
,B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - CORRECT ANSWER -C)
Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
- CORRECT ANSWER -C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-
care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing.
The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The
FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation,
and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a
"hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
,A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess - CORRECT ANSWER -D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing,
jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After
a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the
diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition
is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - CORRECT ANSWER -B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the
most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the
patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose level
is:
, A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate - CORRECT ANSWER -D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose
levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for other
health problems.
C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease. - CORRECT
ANSWER -A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Major risk
factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Unopposed estrogen use
CORRECT ANSWERS 2026 2027 COURSE ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY REVIEW DISEASE MECHANISMS
CLINICAL APPLICATIONS VERIFIED QUESTIONS
ACCURATE ANSWERS HIGH YIELD STUDY GUIDE
COMPLETE TEST BANK GRADED A+
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - CORRECT ANSWER -D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - CORRECT ANSWER -C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
,B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - CORRECT ANSWER -C)
Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
- CORRECT ANSWER -C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-
care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing.
The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The
FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation,
and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a
"hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
,A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess - CORRECT ANSWER -D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing,
jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After
a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the
diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition
is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - CORRECT ANSWER -B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the
most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the
patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose level
is:
, A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate - CORRECT ANSWER -D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose
levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for other
health problems.
C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease. - CORRECT
ANSWER -A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance - CORRECT ANSWER -A) Major risk
factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Unopposed estrogen use
