NU 664 EXAM 2 – PHARMACOLOGY | QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. Which class of drugs is primarily used to reduce inflammation in asthma patients?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Corticosteroids
C. Antihistamines
D. Diuretics
Answer: B – Corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation, improving airflow in
asthma.
2. A patient taking digoxin should have which electrolyte monitored closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer: B – Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, so potassium levels must
be monitored.
3. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors includes:
A. Blocking angiotensin II receptors
B. Preventing conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Increasing renin secretion
D. Inhibiting aldosterone directly
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors prevent the formation of angiotensin II, lowering blood
pressure.
4. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Tetracyclines
D. Macrolides
Answer: B – Cephalosporins interfere with cell wall synthesis, causing bacterial lysis.
5. A patient is prescribed furosemide. Which is a major adverse effect to monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B – Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to
hypokalemia.
6. Which drug is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Pioglitazone
, Answer: B – Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin
sensitivity.
7. A patient taking warfarin should avoid which vitamin supplement?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: B – Vitamin K can reverse warfarin’s anticoagulant effect, reducing drug
efficacy.
8. Which medication is used to treat acute myocardial infarction by dissolving clots?
A. Heparin
B. Alteplase
C. Aspirin
D. Clopidogrel
Answer: B – Alteplase is a thrombolytic that dissolves clots during acute MI.
9. The primary adverse effect of statins is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A – Statins can cause liver enzyme elevations, indicating potential
hepatotoxicity.
10. Which drug class blocks histamine H2 receptors to reduce gastric acid secretion?
A. Proton pump inhibitors
B. Antacids
C. H2 blockers
D. Prokinetic agents
Answer: C – H2 blockers (e.g., ranitidine) reduce gastric acid by inhibiting H2 receptors.
11. A patient develops a dry cough while taking an antihypertensive. Which drug is the most
likely cause?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Diuretic
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation.
12. Which opioid is considered the strongest analgesic?
A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Codeine
D. Hydrocodone
Answer: B – Fentanyl is a potent opioid with rapid onset and high analgesic strength.
13. A patient on levothyroxine should avoid which supplement?
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Calcium
, D. Both B and C
Answer: D – Iron and calcium can interfere with levothyroxine absorption.
14. Which medication is used for neuropathic pain?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Gabapentin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Naproxen
Answer: B – Gabapentin is effective for neuropathic pain by modulating calcium
channels.
15. A patient receiving heparin therapy should be monitored for:
A. Hypertension
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B – Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is a serious adverse effect requiring
monitoring.
16. Which drug class is used to manage chronic heart failure by reducing afterload?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors decrease afterload and improve cardiac output in heart
failure.
17. Which medication can cause ototoxicity at high doses?
A. Gentamicin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
Answer: A – Aminoglycosides like gentamicin can damage the cochlea, causing hearing
loss.
18. A patient taking lithium should be monitored for:
A. Hepatic toxicity
B. Renal function and sodium levels
C. Glucose levels
D. Coagulation profile
Answer: B – Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index; renal function and electrolytes
must be monitored.
19. Which drug class reduces platelet aggregation to prevent stroke?
A. Thrombolytics
B. Antiplatelets
C. Anticoagulants
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B – Antiplatelet agents like aspirin reduce stroke risk by inhibiting platelet
aggregation.
20. A patient taking an SSRI may experience:
A. Hypertension
, B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Excess serotonergic activity can cause serotonin syndrome, a potentially
life-threatening condition.
21. Which drug is commonly used for acute asthma exacerbation?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Fluticasone
Answer: B – Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist for rapid bronchodilation.
22. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Furosemide
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause fetal malformations.
23. A patient taking amiodarone should have which organ monitored regularly?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer: B – Amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity; liver function tests are essential.
24. Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?
A. Ranitidine
B. Omeprazole
C. Famotidine
D. Sucralfate
Answer: B – Omeprazole inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase pump, reducing gastric acid
secretion.
25. A patient develops bleeding gums while on anticoagulants. Which lab test is most
appropriate?
A. CBC
B. PT/INR
C. BUN
D. Creatinine
Answer: B – PT/INR monitors warfarin therapy and bleeding risk.
26. Which antibiotic requires monitoring of peak and trough levels?
A. Vancomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalexin
D. Erythromycin
Answer: A – Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic range; levels prevent toxicity.
27. Which antiemetic works by blocking dopamine receptors?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | EXAM
ALREADY GRADED A+ | LATEST EXAM
1. Which class of drugs is primarily used to reduce inflammation in asthma patients?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Corticosteroids
C. Antihistamines
D. Diuretics
Answer: B – Corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation, improving airflow in
asthma.
2. A patient taking digoxin should have which electrolyte monitored closely?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Answer: B – Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, so potassium levels must
be monitored.
3. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors includes:
A. Blocking angiotensin II receptors
B. Preventing conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
C. Increasing renin secretion
D. Inhibiting aldosterone directly
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors prevent the formation of angiotensin II, lowering blood
pressure.
4. Which antibiotic class inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Cephalosporins
C. Tetracyclines
D. Macrolides
Answer: B – Cephalosporins interfere with cell wall synthesis, causing bacterial lysis.
5. A patient is prescribed furosemide. Which is a major adverse effect to monitor?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypocalcemia
Answer: B – Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to
hypokalemia.
6. Which drug is the first-line treatment for type 2 diabetes?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Insulin glargine
D. Pioglitazone
, Answer: B – Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and improves insulin
sensitivity.
7. A patient taking warfarin should avoid which vitamin supplement?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Answer: B – Vitamin K can reverse warfarin’s anticoagulant effect, reducing drug
efficacy.
8. Which medication is used to treat acute myocardial infarction by dissolving clots?
A. Heparin
B. Alteplase
C. Aspirin
D. Clopidogrel
Answer: B – Alteplase is a thrombolytic that dissolves clots during acute MI.
9. The primary adverse effect of statins is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A – Statins can cause liver enzyme elevations, indicating potential
hepatotoxicity.
10. Which drug class blocks histamine H2 receptors to reduce gastric acid secretion?
A. Proton pump inhibitors
B. Antacids
C. H2 blockers
D. Prokinetic agents
Answer: C – H2 blockers (e.g., ranitidine) reduce gastric acid by inhibiting H2 receptors.
11. A patient develops a dry cough while taking an antihypertensive. Which drug is the most
likely cause?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Diuretic
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation.
12. Which opioid is considered the strongest analgesic?
A. Morphine
B. Fentanyl
C. Codeine
D. Hydrocodone
Answer: B – Fentanyl is a potent opioid with rapid onset and high analgesic strength.
13. A patient on levothyroxine should avoid which supplement?
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Calcium
, D. Both B and C
Answer: D – Iron and calcium can interfere with levothyroxine absorption.
14. Which medication is used for neuropathic pain?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Gabapentin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Naproxen
Answer: B – Gabapentin is effective for neuropathic pain by modulating calcium
channels.
15. A patient receiving heparin therapy should be monitored for:
A. Hypertension
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B – Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is a serious adverse effect requiring
monitoring.
16. Which drug class is used to manage chronic heart failure by reducing afterload?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors decrease afterload and improve cardiac output in heart
failure.
17. Which medication can cause ototoxicity at high doses?
A. Gentamicin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Vancomycin
Answer: A – Aminoglycosides like gentamicin can damage the cochlea, causing hearing
loss.
18. A patient taking lithium should be monitored for:
A. Hepatic toxicity
B. Renal function and sodium levels
C. Glucose levels
D. Coagulation profile
Answer: B – Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index; renal function and electrolytes
must be monitored.
19. Which drug class reduces platelet aggregation to prevent stroke?
A. Thrombolytics
B. Antiplatelets
C. Anticoagulants
D. Beta-blockers
Answer: B – Antiplatelet agents like aspirin reduce stroke risk by inhibiting platelet
aggregation.
20. A patient taking an SSRI may experience:
A. Hypertension
, B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Excess serotonergic activity can cause serotonin syndrome, a potentially
life-threatening condition.
21. Which drug is commonly used for acute asthma exacerbation?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol
C. Montelukast
D. Fluticasone
Answer: B – Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist for rapid bronchodilation.
22. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Metformin
C. Insulin
D. Furosemide
Answer: A – ACE inhibitors like lisinopril can cause fetal malformations.
23. A patient taking amiodarone should have which organ monitored regularly?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
Answer: B – Amiodarone can cause hepatotoxicity; liver function tests are essential.
24. Which drug is a proton pump inhibitor?
A. Ranitidine
B. Omeprazole
C. Famotidine
D. Sucralfate
Answer: B – Omeprazole inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase pump, reducing gastric acid
secretion.
25. A patient develops bleeding gums while on anticoagulants. Which lab test is most
appropriate?
A. CBC
B. PT/INR
C. BUN
D. Creatinine
Answer: B – PT/INR monitors warfarin therapy and bleeding risk.
26. Which antibiotic requires monitoring of peak and trough levels?
A. Vancomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalexin
D. Erythromycin
Answer: A – Vancomycin has a narrow therapeutic range; levels prevent toxicity.
27. Which antiemetic works by blocking dopamine receptors?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
