Comprehensive Study Guide | Next Generation
NCLEX Review for Mental Health Nursing |
Verified Practice Questions, Evidence-Based
Psychiatric Nursing Concepts,
Psychopharmacology Essentials, Patient
Assessment Strategies, Therapeutic
Communication, Mental Health Case Studies,
Clinical Decision-Making Skills, Mental
Health Disorders Across the Lifespan, Crisis
Intervention, Ethical and Legal
Considerations, and Step-by-Step Solutions
for ATI NGN Success
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who states, "I don't
see the point in living anymore." Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Ask the client if they have a plan to harm themselves
B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C. Place the client on one-to-one suicide observation
D. Document the client's statement in the medical record
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Ask the client if they have a plan to harm themselves
RATIONALE: When a client expresses suicidal ideation, the nurse's priority is to assess the immediacy
and severity of risk by determining if the client has a specific plan, means, and intent. This assessment
guides subsequent interventions such as initiating suicide precautions, notifying the provider, or
increasing observation. Documentation is important but not the priority action.
Question 2: A nurse is teaching a client about sertraline prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder.
Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should stop taking this medication if I feel better in two weeks."
B. "I may experience increased anxiety during the first few weeks of treatment."
C. "I can take this medication with or without food, but I should avoid grapefruit juice."
D. "This medication will work immediately to reduce my anxiety symptoms."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. I may experience increased anxiety during the first few weeks of treatment.
RATIONALE: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline may initially increase anxiety,
agitation, or insomnia during the first 1-2 weeks of therapy before therapeutic effects emerge. Clients
must be educated about this transient effect to promote adherence. SSRIs typically require 4-6 weeks
for full therapeutic effect, should not be stopped abruptly, and grapefruit juice interactions are more
relevant to certain other medications, not sertraline specifically.
,Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory
hallucinations. Which intervention is most therapeutic?
A. Tell the client the voices are not real and should be ignored
B. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying
C. Redirect the client to a structured activity immediately
D. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication without further assessment
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ask the client to describe what the voices are saying
RATIONALE: Assessing the content of hallucinations is critical to determine if the client is experiencing
command hallucinations that may pose a safety risk. Dismissing the experience ("voices are not real")
invalidates the client's reality and damages therapeutic rapport. While redirection and medication may
be appropriate later, assessment of content and associated risk must precede intervention.
Question 4: A nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder who is in a manic episode. Which
behavior is the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Psychomotor retardation and flat affect
B. Grandiose delusions and pressured speech
C. Social withdrawal and anhedonia
D. Obsessive rituals and contamination fears
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Grandiose delusions and pressured speech
RATIONALE: Manic episodes in bipolar disorder are characterized by elevated or irritable mood,
grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, flight of ideas, and increased goal-directed
activity. Psychomotor retardation, flat affect, social withdrawal, and anhedonia are characteristic of
depressive episodes. Obsessive rituals relate to obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Question 5: A nurse is using therapeutic communication with a client who states, "My family would be
better off without me." Which response is most appropriate?
A. "That's not true; your family loves you very much."
B. "You sound like you're feeling very hopeless right now."
C. "Why do you think your family feels that way?"
D. "Let's focus on the positive aspects of your life."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. You sound like you're feeling very hopeless right now.
RATIONALE: Therapeutic communication involves reflecting feelings and validating the client's
experience without offering false reassurance, asking "why" questions (which can induce
defensiveness), or redirecting prematurely. Option B demonstrates empathy and encourages further
exploration of the client's emotional state, which is essential for assessment and building trust.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer clozapine to a client with treatment-resistant
schizophrenia. Which laboratory value must be monitored regularly due to the risk of
agranulocytosis?
,A. Serum sodium
B. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
C. Liver function tests
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC)
RATIONALE: Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening
drop in neutrophils. Mandatory monitoring of ANC through the Clozapine Risk Evaluation and Mitigation
Strategy (REMS) program is required before dispensing. While other labs may be monitored for general
health, ANC is specific to clozapine safety.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) who experiences a
flashback during a procedure. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Restrain the client to prevent injury
B. Speak in a calm, reassuring voice and orient the client to the present
C. Leave the room to give the client space
D. Administer a PRN benzodiazepine immediately
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Speak in a calm, reassuring voice and orient the client to the present
RATIONALE: During a flashback, the client is re-experiencing trauma and may be disoriented. The
priority is to provide grounding techniques: using a calm voice, stating the client's name, the current
date, location, and that they are safe. Restraints can retraumatize and escalate distress. Leaving the
client alone increases fear. Medication may be considered later but is not the first-line intervention for
acute flashback management.
Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client for complicated grief. Which finding distinguishes complicated
grief from normal bereavement?
A. Crying spells that occur intermittently for 6 months
B. Inability to perform activities of daily living 12 months after the loss
C. Feeling sad when reminded of the deceased
D. Attending a support group for bereaved individuals
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Inability to perform activities of daily living 12 months after the loss
RATIONALE: Complicated grief (persistent complex bereavement disorder) is characterized by
prolonged, impairing symptoms that significantly interfere with functioning beyond 6-12 months after
loss. Intermittent crying, sadness when reminded, and seeking support are normal aspects of
bereavement. Functional impairment lasting a year or more suggests a pathological grief response
requiring clinical intervention.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching a client about lithium therapy for bipolar disorder. Which statement
by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will maintain adequate fluid intake and avoid excessive salt."
B. "I will have my blood levels checked regularly."
, C. "I can take ibuprofen for headaches while on this medication."
D. "I will report signs of toxicity like tremors, confusion, or diarrhea."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I can take ibuprofen for headaches while on this medication.
RATIONALE: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen can increase lithium levels
by reducing renal clearance, raising the risk of toxicity. Clients on lithium should use acetaminophen
instead for pain/fever. Options A, B, and D reflect accurate understanding of lithium management:
hydration, sodium balance, therapeutic drug monitoring, and recognizing toxicity symptoms.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Body mass index (BMI) of 17.5
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Lanugo hair on the extremities
D. Preoccupation with food and calories
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
RATIONALE: Hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L) is a medical emergency in eating disorders due to
risks of cardiac arrhythmias and sudden death. While low BMI, lanugo, and food preoccupation are
concerning features of anorexia, electrolyte imbalances pose immediate life-threatening risks requiring
urgent correction. Cardiac monitoring and electrolyte replacement are priorities.
Question 11: A nurse is developing a care plan for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).
Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Encourage the client to complete rituals quickly to save time
B. Allow extra time for the client to perform rituals initially, then gradually limit them
C. Interrupt rituals abruptly to reduce anxiety through exposure
D. Provide reassurance that the obsessions are irrational
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Allow extra time for the client to perform rituals initially, then gradually limit
them
RATIONALE: In OCD treatment, abruptly stopping rituals can escalate anxiety and damage rapport. A
gradual, collaborative approach using exposure and response prevention (ERP) is evidence-based.
Initially accommodating rituals while building trust, then systematically delaying or reducing them,
supports therapeutic progress. Reassurance or rushing rituals reinforces the OCD cycle.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client who may be experiencing neuroleptic malignant syndrome
(NMS) after starting haloperidol. Which finding is most indicative of NMS?
A. Mild tremor and restlessness
B. Fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability
C. Dry mouth and blurred vision
D. Weight gain and sedation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability