409
OB ATI Exam EXAM 2026 | ALL CURRENT
EXAM VERSIONS 2026 | ACCURATE REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
ACCURATE AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A
Question: A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. After assuring a patent
airway, what is the priority nursing action?
A. Swaddle the newborn
B. Dry the skin
C. Provide glucose
D. Assess the heart rate
Answer: B. Dry the skin
Rationale: Drying the newborn helps prevent heat loss and promotes thermoregulation
immediately after birth.
Question: A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation undergoing a
contraction stress test. The test results are negative. What is the correct interpretation?
A. Fetal distress is present
B. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Immediate delivery is needed
D. Further testing is required
Answer: B. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency
Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates the fetus can tolerate stress without signs
of hypoxia.
Question: A nurse is providing preconception counseling for a client planning a pregnancy.
Which supplement should be recommended to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
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C. Folic acid
D. Calcium
Answer: C. Folic acid
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation prior to conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of neural tube defects.
Question: A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which client
should be seen first?
A. A client with mild back pain
B. A client who has preeclampsia with BP 138/90 mm Hg
C. A client in early labor with contractions
D. A client requesting teaching
Answer: B. A client who has preeclampsia with BP 138/90 mm Hg
Rationale: Preeclampsia can escalate quickly; even moderately elevated BP warrants priority
assessment.
Question: A nurse is teaching fetal development to clients in an antenatal clinic. Which
statement should be included?
A. “The baby's heartbeat is audible by a Doppler at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
B. “The heartbeat cannot be detected until 20 weeks.”
C. “Fetal movements start at 4 weeks.”
D. “The placenta is fully functional at 8 weeks.”
Answer: A. “The baby's heartbeat is audible by a Doppler at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be heard by Doppler between 10–12 weeks gestation.
Question: A nurse in a prenatal clinic is completing a skin assessment of a client in the second
trimester. Which findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Linea nigra
B. Melasma
C. Striae gravidarum
D. Petechiae
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Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Linea nigra, melasma, and striae are common skin changes in the second trimester;
petechiae are not typical and may indicate pathology.
Question: A nurse is assessing a client 8 hr postpartum and multiparous. Which finding alerts
the nurse to the client’s need to urinate?
A. Fundus three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
B. Fundus at the umbilicus
C. Lochia alba
D. Mild uterine cramping
Answer: A. Fundus three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
Rationale: A distended bladder prevents the uterus from contracting fully, causing the fundus to
be elevated.
Question: A nurse is teaching about crib safety. Which statement by the parent indicates
understanding?
A. “I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.”
B. “Pillows help support the baby safely.”
C. “A bumper is required for safety.”
D. “Plush toys are recommended for comfort.”
Answer: A. “I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.”
Rationale: Extra blankets, pillows, and toys increase the risk of suffocation and SIDS.
Question: A nurse is admitting a client at 40 weeks gestation with ruptured membranes. The
newborn’s head is crowning, and the client wants to push. Which statement should the nurse
make?
A. “You should try to pant as the delivery proceeds.”
B. “Push as hard as you can with each contraction.”
C. “Hold your breath and push.”
D. “Delay pushing until fully dilated.”
Answer: A. “You should try to pant as the delivery proceeds.”
Rationale: Panting (breathing in short bursts) helps control delivery and reduce perineal trauma
during crowning.
409
OB ATI Exam EXAM 2026 | ALL CURRENT
EXAM VERSIONS 2026 | ACCURATE REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
ACCURATE AND VERIFIED FOR
GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A
Question: A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. After assuring a patent
airway, what is the priority nursing action?
A. Swaddle the newborn
B. Dry the skin
C. Provide glucose
D. Assess the heart rate
Answer: B. Dry the skin
Rationale: Drying the newborn helps prevent heat loss and promotes thermoregulation
immediately after birth.
Question: A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation undergoing a
contraction stress test. The test results are negative. What is the correct interpretation?
A. Fetal distress is present
B. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Immediate delivery is needed
D. Further testing is required
Answer: B. There is no evidence of uteroplacental insufficiency
Rationale: A negative contraction stress test indicates the fetus can tolerate stress without signs
of hypoxia.
Question: A nurse is providing preconception counseling for a client planning a pregnancy.
Which supplement should be recommended to prevent neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
409
,409
C. Folic acid
D. Calcium
Answer: C. Folic acid
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation prior to conception and during early pregnancy reduces
the risk of neural tube defects.
Question: A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which client
should be seen first?
A. A client with mild back pain
B. A client who has preeclampsia with BP 138/90 mm Hg
C. A client in early labor with contractions
D. A client requesting teaching
Answer: B. A client who has preeclampsia with BP 138/90 mm Hg
Rationale: Preeclampsia can escalate quickly; even moderately elevated BP warrants priority
assessment.
Question: A nurse is teaching fetal development to clients in an antenatal clinic. Which
statement should be included?
A. “The baby's heartbeat is audible by a Doppler at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
B. “The heartbeat cannot be detected until 20 weeks.”
C. “Fetal movements start at 4 weeks.”
D. “The placenta is fully functional at 8 weeks.”
Answer: A. “The baby's heartbeat is audible by a Doppler at 12 weeks of pregnancy.”
Rationale: Fetal heart tones can usually be heard by Doppler between 10–12 weeks gestation.
Question: A nurse in a prenatal clinic is completing a skin assessment of a client in the second
trimester. Which findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
A. Linea nigra
B. Melasma
C. Striae gravidarum
D. Petechiae
409
, 409
Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: Linea nigra, melasma, and striae are common skin changes in the second trimester;
petechiae are not typical and may indicate pathology.
Question: A nurse is assessing a client 8 hr postpartum and multiparous. Which finding alerts
the nurse to the client’s need to urinate?
A. Fundus three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
B. Fundus at the umbilicus
C. Lochia alba
D. Mild uterine cramping
Answer: A. Fundus three fingerbreadths above the umbilicus
Rationale: A distended bladder prevents the uterus from contracting fully, causing the fundus to
be elevated.
Question: A nurse is teaching about crib safety. Which statement by the parent indicates
understanding?
A. “I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.”
B. “Pillows help support the baby safely.”
C. “A bumper is required for safety.”
D. “Plush toys are recommended for comfort.”
Answer: A. “I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.”
Rationale: Extra blankets, pillows, and toys increase the risk of suffocation and SIDS.
Question: A nurse is admitting a client at 40 weeks gestation with ruptured membranes. The
newborn’s head is crowning, and the client wants to push. Which statement should the nurse
make?
A. “You should try to pant as the delivery proceeds.”
B. “Push as hard as you can with each contraction.”
C. “Hold your breath and push.”
D. “Delay pushing until fully dilated.”
Answer: A. “You should try to pant as the delivery proceeds.”
Rationale: Panting (breathing in short bursts) helps control delivery and reduce perineal trauma
during crowning.
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