SCMH 1010 CHAPTERS 1-6, 8, AND 10 EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026

SCMH 1010 CHAPTERS 1-6, 8, AND 10 EXAM QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST UPDATE 2026 CHAPTER 1 MATERIAL - Answers 1) A way of asking and answering questions about the physical universe is known as: a) science. b) research. c) the natural coalition of church and state. d) laws of nature. e) pseudoscience. - Answers a) science. 2) Which statement is true about the discipline of science? a) Science is a complete set of facts about the physical world. b) Science provides answers to all questions about our environment. c) Science encompasses all of pseudoscience and more. d) Science and intuition are mutually exclusive. e) Science provides our best view to the workings of the universe and everything within it. - Answers e) Science provides our best view to the workings of the universe and everything within it. 3) Which statement does not describe a falling object? a) D = a constant multiplied by (time)2. b) The distance traveled is proportional to time traveled multiplied by time traveled. c) Distance equals a constant multiplied by time. d) Time squared multiplied by a constant equals distance. e) If an object falls three times as long as another, it will travel nine times as far as another. - Answers c) Distance equals a constant multiplied by time. 4) Why is mathematics the language of science? a) Use of mathematics ensures international cooperation among scientists. b) Mathematics separates scientists from non-scientists. c) Mathematics allows scientists to be more accurate in describing an observation of nature. d) Because scientists are more analytical than creative, mathematics is a way to analyze. e) Mathematics is like Latin in that it is a way to communicate that few understand. - Answers c) Mathematics allows scientists to be more accurate in describing an observation of nature. 5) Which of the following statements is true of a theory? a) The word theory in science is only used when a hypothesis has been tested many times and not disproven. b) The word theory in science can refer to an unproven hypothesis or one that has been tested many times and not disproven. c) The word theory in science is only used when a hypothesis has been tested and proven false. d) The word theory in science only refers to an unproven hypothesis. e) The word theory in science only refers to a hypothesis that has been proven true. - Answers a) The word theory in science is only used when a hypothesis has been tested many times and not disproven. 6) In science, every theory must be tested by using it to make: a) hypotheses. b) laws of nature. c) experiments. d) mathematical formulae. e) predictions. - Answers e) predictions. 7) Which of the following statements is a prediction? a) Mealworms prefer dark environments. b) High quality balloons filled with atmospheric air will float higher than low quality balloons filled with atmospheric air. c) If I drop a rock it will fall to the ground. d) Spearmint candies taste better than peppermint candies. e) There is an attraction called gravity between every two objects in the universe. - Answers c) If I drop a rock it will fall to the ground. 10) The scientific method depends on: a) reproducible results. b) clearly stated laws of nature. c) accurate initial predictions. d) fact-based hypotheses. e) communication of findings. - Answers a) reproducible results. 11) Determine which of these questions could be researchable using the scientific method. a) Under what conditions could bass live in a lake? b) What was the artist thinking when he painted Mona Lisa? c) Are UFOs related to crop circles? d) Is there a supreme deity? e) What is the meaning of life? - Answers a) Under what conditions could bass live in a lake? 12) How did Mendeleev organize the periodic table of elements? a) date of first discovery b) alphabetically c) atomic weight of the element d) total number of electrons e) ionization energy - Answers c) atomic weight of the element 13) At the time Dimitri Mendeleev produced the first periodic table of the elements, which of the following was not true? a) There were a little more than 60 known chemical elements. b) Chemists used the concept of atomic mass. c) Chemists knew that each element had distinct chemical behaviors. d) It was the mid-18th century. e) The table showed blank spaces where undiscovered elements would fit into it. - Answers d) It was the mid-18th century. 14) An example of data that you could not graph using measurements you made of time and distance is: a) movement of automobiles b) falling objects c) temperature of boiling water d) speed of avalanches e) rate of movement of storms - Answers c) temperature of boiling water 15) If you were to devise an experiment to test a product seen on television, which included all steps in the scientific method, what would be the first step? a) formulate a question b) make observations c) conduct experiments d) propose an hypothesis e) put forward a theory - Answers a) formulate a question 16) What part does creativity play in the scientific method? a) making observations b) interpreting experimental results c) designing experiments d) spending money for research e) drawing conclusions from inadequate data - Answers c) designing experiments 17) Why do scientists use mathematics? a) They have no other common language with which to communicate. b) Mathematics is like a secret code for scientists. c) It is a concise language that allows scientists to communicate and make predictions d) To add confusion to the presentation of data. e) To make it easier to do research with computers. - Answers c) It is a concise language that allows scientists to communicate and make predictions 18) How does science differ from pseudoscience? a) Scientific hypotheses can be proven false through experiment. b) Science requires a lower standard of proof than pseudoscience. c) Scientific statements are based on anecdotes. d) Science is just one person's opinion. e) Science is the quest for absolute truths that never change. - Answers a) Scientific hypotheses can be proven false through experiment. 19) Which of the following is not considered to be in the realm of science? a) astrology b) astronomy c) biology d) chemistry e) physics - Answers a) astrology 20) Which pair are both examples of pseudoscience? a) UFO studies and astrology b) reincarnation and evolution c) geology and crystal power d) astronomy and extrasensory perception e) extrasensory perception and physics - Answers a) UFO studies and astrology 21) Why do scientists reject astrology? a) Planets do not exert a gravitational force on a newborn baby. b) Stars do not exert any force on a newborn baby. c) The Babylonians developed astrology. d) The Moon is too far away to influence a person's life. e) There is no evidence that stars can predict the future. - Answers e) There is no evidence that stars can predict the future. 22) Regarding research on any painting, the scientific method cannot tell us: a) the age of the painting. b) if the painting is a fake. c) whether the painting is beautiful or not. d) the origin of the paints used. e) the thickness of the paint layers. - Answers c) whether the painting is beautiful or not. 23) The central belief of astrology is that: a) astronomy is all wrong. b) a person's future can be told by birth-date positions of celestial objects. c) stars and planets are much closer than astronomers think. d) paranormal activity controls the stars. e) celebrities have birthdates that are special compared to other people. - Answers b) a person's future can be told by birth-date positions of celestial objects. 24) Laws of nature can be characterized by saying that they: a) arise from repeated observation but no testing. b) represent our best understanding of how the universe works in certain circumstances. c) are not subject to change based upon additional observations. d) always have exceptions and other defects. e) are the same as absolute truths. - Answers b) represent our best understanding of how the universe works in certain circumstances. 25) Which of the following scientists would study forces of motion in the universe? a) biologists and chemists b) physicists and astronomers c) chemists and geologists d) geologists and biologists e) chemists alone - Answers b) physicists and astronomers 26) Basic research scientists: a) are interested in inquiry for the sake of acquiring fundamental knowledge. b) believe in the healing power of meditation. c) want their research to have practical application to industry or technology. d) often have their discoveries translated into practical uses. e) would be likely to have a patent on a discovery. - Answers a) are interested in inquiry for the sake of acquiring fundamental knowledge. 27) Scientists who search for laws that describe matter, energy, forces and motions, are called: a) astrologists b) physicists c) chemists d) astronomers e) Earth scientists - Answers b) physicists 28) What is SETI? a) a pseudoscience b) the theory of intelligent life c) the search for intelligent life d) the application of science to astrology e) short-wave interference in radio signals - Answers c) the search for intelligent life 29) What percent of research grants submitted are federally funded? a) 5% to 25% b) 20% to 60% c) 30% to 70% d) 30% to 70% e) 50% to 90% - Answers a) 5% to 25% 30) Which of the following would be funded by a typical federal grant for scientific research? a) computer time to run analyses b) salaries of investigators c) equipment to conduct the research d) graduate student support e) all of these - Answers e) all of these 31) Peer review in science: a) allows scientists to publish work that has not been substantiated by other scientists. b) is accomplished by bypassing journal publications and holding a press conference first. c) causes delays between the conclusion of an experiment and the communication of the results. d) is conducted in confidence by a panel of experts in the field. e) has become outdated since the advent of computers. - Answers d) is conducted in confidence by a panel of experts in the field. 32) When scientists have finished research and wish to communicate the results, they are most likely to do which of the following? a) immediately repeat the research b) call a press conference and announce pre-publication findings c) sell their findings to a research and development company d) write a concise paper and submit it to a scientific journal e) submit an abstract to a popular science magazine - Answers d) write a concise paper and submit it to a scientific journal 33) Everything that happens in the universe happens because: a) one or more physical laws are operating. b) there is an intricate spider web of science. c) there are no longer any significant technical challenges for scientists. d) the theoretical reasons have been published in a peer-reviewed journal. e) there are so many scientists in the field of basic research. - Answers a) one or more physical laws are operating. 34) The main difference between basic and applied research is: a) the difference in cost of projects in the different areas. b) the motivation behind the quest for new knowledge. c) the scientific background and credentials of the scientists involved. d) one involves technology and the other does not. e) one is more prestigious than the other. - Answers b) the motivation behind the quest for new knowledge. 35) An example of a major government research laboratory is: a) AT&T Bell Laboratories. b) Carnegie Institution. c) Texas Center for Superconductivity d) Los Alamos National Laboratory e) IBM Watson Research Laboratory - Answers d) Los Alamos National Laboratory 36) Federal science funding in terms of millions of dollars comes most commonly from: a) National Science Foundation b) Department of Energy c) Department of Defense d) Smithsonian Institution e) National Aeronautics and Space Administration - Answers c) Department of Defense 37) The cornerstone of the scientific publishing process is: a) social media. b) peer review. c) newspaper reporting. d) e-mail. e) payment of fees. - Answers b) peer review. 38) A clear example of applied research is: a) improving cell phone technology. b) studying the origin of comets. c) determining the age of the Moon. d) measuring the age of meteorites. e) analyzing the sizes of river gravel. - Answers a) improving cell phone technology. 39) Study of the origin of the universe is a sub-discipline of: a) Earth science b) biology c) physics d) chemistry e) none of the above - Answers c) physics 40) A common area of study for both Earth sciences and astronomy is the study of: a) stars. b) planets. c) astrology. d) chemical reactions. e) heat and light. - Answers b) planets. CHAPTER 2 MATERIAL - Answers 2) What predicable event can be observed each year by looking from the central semi-circle of upright stones over the heel stone at Stonehenge? a) The setting of the Sun on the day of onset of winter b) The rising of the Sun on the first day of the start of summer c) The setting of the Sun on the day of the end of autumn d) The rising of the Sun on the day of mid-summer e) The setting of the Sun on the day of mid-winter - Answers d) The rising of the Sun on the day of mid-summer 3) Dr. John Snow's 1854 data-based research on the incidence of cholera in London found a connection between: a) water sources and dehydration. b) human waste and disease. c) chloroform and pregnancy. d) germs and disease. e) pumps and water pipes. - Answers b) human waste and disease. 4) Assuming that a person can pull 100 kilograms, how many people would have been required to pull a 50,000 kilogram lintel (upright) stone in the building of Stonehenge? a) 5 b) 50 c) 500 d) 5,000 e) 50,000 - Answers c) 500 5) Ockham's razor is a procedure that addresses the most likely explanation using: a) astronomy. b) simplest solutions. c) mathematics. d) constellations. e) multiplying postulates. - Answers b) simplest solutions. 6) The first widely accepted explanation for complex celestial motions is credited to: a) Tycho Brahe. b) Johannes Kepler. c) Nicolas Copernicus. d) Claudius Ptolemy. e) Galileo Galilei. - Answers d) Claudius Ptolemy. 7) The theory that the Earth is at the center of the universe was the prevailing explanation for what was observed in the heavens for almost __________ years. a) 150 b) 500 c) 1,500 d) 5,000 e) 6,500 - Answers c) 1,500 8) The center of the Copernican universe is the: a) Sun. b) Earth. c) Moon. d) Jupiter e) Venus. - Answers a) Sun. 9) Which of these statements is not true about Copernicus? a) He hypothesized that planetary orbits were circular. b) He thought that Ptolemy's ideas about the shape of orbits were correct. c) He provided the first serious alternative to Ptolemy's system. d) His model of the universe placed the Sun, rather than the Earth, at the center. e) He used telescopic observations to confirm his theories. - Answers e) He used telescopic observations to confirm his theories. 10) Kepler's first law of planetary motion states that: a) all planets orbit in circular paths. b) the Earth is the center of the universe. c) all planets orbit in elliptical paths. d) solar system bodies are structured as spheres within spheres. e) a planet's velocity is constant during its orbit around the Sun. - Answers c) all planets orbit in elliptical paths. 11) Whose 17th century data was used to initially understand the elliptical orbits of planets? a) Tycho Brahe b) Johannes Kepler c) Nicolas Copernicus d) Claudius Ptolemy e) Galileo Galilei - Answers a) Tycho Brahe 12) The main assumption of ideality that was proven wrong by Kepler had to do with: a) circular orbits of the planets. b) elliptical orbits of the planets. c) the place of the Sun in the solar system. d) the orbit of Earth's Moon. e) the placement of the Earth at the center of our Solar System. - Answers b) elliptical orbits of the planets. 13) The first person to record observations using a telescope was: a) Isaac Newton. b) Johannes Kepler. c) Galileo Galilei. d) Claudius Ptolemy. e) Nicholas Copernicus. - Answers c) Galileo Galilei. 14) "Eighty kilometers per hour toward the northeast" is a statement about: a) acceleration. b) uniform motion. c) velocity. d) speed. e) rate. - Answers c) velocity. 15) Who is known as the founder or father of experimental science? a) Isaac Newton. b) Johannes Kepler. c) Galileo Galilei. d) Claudius Ptolemy. e) Nicholas Copernicus. - Answers c) Galileo Galilei. 16) If your car is moving at 100 km/hr, how many kilometers will your car travel in 15 minutes? a) 2 km b) 5 km c) 25 km d) 50 km e) 100 km - Answers c) 25 km 17) A truck is traveling at 30 m/s and comes to rest in 10 seconds. Its acceleration is: a) 30 m/s2 b) 3 m/s2 c) -3 m/s2 d) -30 m/s2 e) -300 m/s - Answers c) -3 m/s2 18) For an object where wind resistance is not a factor, like a steel ball, being dropped from a tall tower, the object has a velocity of __________ m/sec in four seconds. a) 9.8 b) 19.6 c) 29.4 d) 39.2 e) 49.0 - Answers d) 39.2 19) Galileo's work demonstrated that the distance covered by an accelerating object depends on the square of the: a) mass. b) gravitational constant. c) acceleration. d) travel time. e) final velocity. - Answers d) travel time. 20) Which of the following is most likely to happen to an astronaut during liftoff? a) Bones and muscles collapse. b) Nerve damage occurs. c) Body fluids are replenished. d) Blood is drained from the brain. e) Old wounds heal miraculously. - Answers d) Blood is drained from the brain. 21) Which of the following is in uniform motion? a) a kite dancing on the wind b) a jet as it takes off from an airport c) an Olympic skier winding through a slalom course d) a high diver spinning in the air e) a train traveling west at 70 mph - Answers e) a train traveling west at 70 mph 22) Force is equal to mass times __________ is a statement of Newton's second law. a) gravity b) velocity c) acceleration d) speed e) a constant - Answers c) acceleration 23) Newton's third law of motion includes the statement that: a) for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. b) the less massive an object, the more force is required to overcome inertia. c) every falling object falls at different and constantly changing rates. d) the acceleration produced on a body by a force is inversely proportional to the amount of force applied to the body. e) there is no gravity in most of the vast space between stars. - Answers a) for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. 25) If you weigh 100 kilograms and are standing on Earth without moving, how much force is the ground exerting on you? a) No force b) Less than 100 kilograms c) 100 kilograms d) More than100 kilograms e) Infinite force - Answers c) 100 kilograms 26) Linear momentum is a quantity that is equal to the: a) difference between an object's mass and velocity. b) sum of an object's mass multiplied by velocity. c) product of an object's mass multiplied by velocity. d) gravitational force multiplied by velocity. e) the reciprocal of an object's mass multiplied by velocity. - Answers c) product of an object's mass multiplied by velocity. 27) Which of the following demonstrates angular momentum? a) fireworks display b) figure skater's spin c) rocket launch d) flight of a baseball e) punch of a boxer - Answers b) figure skater's spin 29) The unit for measurement of momentum is: a) kg b) sec c) m/sec d) kg m/sec2 e) kg m/sec - Answers d) kg m/sec2 30) Angular momentum has to do with objects that are: a) spinning. b) moving in a straight line. c) launching into orbit. d) exploding. e) stationary. - Answers a) spinning. 31) Inertial guidance systems rely on objects that have what kind of momentum? a) linear b) angular c) gravitational d) falling e) orbital - Answers b) angular 32) If you were in a spacecraft moving away from Earth, your: a) mass would be increasing. b) weight would be decreasing. c) weight would be increasing. d) mass would be decreasing. e) weight would not change. - Answers b) weight would be decreasing. 33) To calculate the gravitational force between two objects, we need all the following except: a) gravitational constant. b) mass of the first object. c) mass of the second object. d) acceleration of both objects. e) distance between the two objects. - Answers d) acceleration of both objects. 34) Which of the following is true of Newton's law of universal gravitation? a) Weight is a special case of force due to gravity. b) Gravitational force of an object on Earth is relative to its acceleration. c) Gravitational force between two objects can equal zero. d) Force = little g times mass squared. e) Force = mass times velocity. - Answers a) Weight is a special case of force due to gravity. 35) If the Moon were twice as far from the Earth as it is now, the gravitational attraction between Earth and Moon would be: a) twice as great as it is now. b) four times as great as it is now. c) one-fourth as great as it is now. d) the same as it is now. e) one-half as great as it is now . - Answers c) one-fourth as great as it is now. 36) On Earth, acceleration due to gravity: a) is not a universal constant. b) increases with increasing altitude. c) decreases with increasing altitude. d) is different for objects in Earth's orbit. e) has changed over time. - Answers c) decreases with increasing altitude. 37) An example of a chaotic system is the/a: a) turbulent flow of fluids. b) trajectory of a missile. c) orbit of the Moon and the Earth. d) moving train. e) variation of gravity on Earth. - Answers a) turbulent flow of fluids. 38) Big G is the: a) acceleration of gravity. b) universal gravitational constant. c) force of gravity d) mass of the larger of two objects. e) mass of the smaller of two objects. - Answers b) universal gravitational constant. 39) The force acting on the Moon to keep it in orbit is: a) gravity. b) mass. c) momentum. d) Moon's mass. e) atmospheric pressure. - Answers a) gravity. 40) The universal gravitational constant was first measured using: a) metal balls dropped from towers. b) metal balls rolled down an inclined plane. c) a Cavendish balance. d) a man-made satellite in Earth's orbit. e) rockets fired off with explosives. - Answers c) a Cavendish balance. CHAPTER 3 MATERIAL - Answers 1) From a physicist's point of view, in which of the following cases has significant work been done? a) You try to pull your car out of a ditch, but it doesn't budge. b) Your mother holds a sleeping baby. c) Your brother throws his dirty clothes on the floor. d) You review for a test by imagining the questions. e) Your father tries unsuccessfully to open a jar. - Answers c) Your brother throws his dirty clothes on the floor. 2) What did James Prescott Joule discover about heat? a) Heat is a form of energy. b) Potential energy equals heat. c) Calories should be limited to energy required. d) Brass tools work better under water. e) Horses expend energy at a rate of 550 foot-pound/second. - Answers a) Heat is a form of energy. 3) Which of the following is a rate? a) joule b) foot-pound c) power d) energy e) newton - Answers c) power 5) James Watt designed experiments in horsepower to: a) assist miners in removing ore. b) calculate the velocity of a water pump. c) quantify the energy generated by a horse in mines. d) invent the steam engine. e) assess the health of horses. - Answers c) quantify the energy generated by a horse in mines. 6) In an isolated system, the total amount of what is conserved? a) energy b) work c) sunlight d) matter e) force - Answers a) energy 7) The energy in crude oil derives from what original source? a) sunlight b) soil c) fossils d) rocks e) gravity - Answers a) sunlight 8) If a force cannot move the object it is applied against, then no: a) force is applied. b) work is done. c) energy is used. d) none of the above. e) all of the above. - Answers b) work is done. 9) Power is how much work is done divided by: a) distance. b) time. c) energy. d) work. e) mass. - Answers b) time. 10) When a system runs out of energy, it can: a) still generate power. b) do no more work. c) exert no more force. d) none of the above. e) all of the above. - Answers b) do no more work. 11) The watt value printed on a light bulb tells the amount of energy the light bulb is using in joules per second. Which one of the following light bulbs is using the most energy? a) 100-watt bulb that burns for twenty minutes b) 75-watt bulb that burns for thirty minutes c) 60-watt bulb that burns for one hour d) 40-watt bulb that burns for two hours e) 25-watt bulb left on for three hours - Answers d) 40-watt bulb that burns for two hours 12) Which of the following balls would have the greatest amount of kinetic energy if they are all traveling at 10 m/s? a) baseball b) ping pong ball c) soccer ball d) bowling ball e) basketball - Answers d) bowling ball 13) What kind of energy does the pounding of ocean surf demonstrate? a) kinetic energy b) potential energy c) sound energy d) heat energy e) mechanical energy - Answers a) kinetic energy 14) Which object has the greatest amount of kinetic energy? a) 250-gram baseball hit at 50 meters/second b) 300-gram baseball traveling at 50 meters/second c) 4-kilogram bowling ball traveling at 7 meters per second d) 4-kilogram bowling ball traveling at 10 meters per second e) a 120-gram tennis ball served at 50 meters/second - Answers b) 300-gram baseball traveling at 50 meters/second 15) The energy stored in all fossil fuels was originally in: a) dinosaur bones. b) meteors. c) Earth's ocean. d) uranium deposits. e) the Sun. - Answers e) the Sun. 16) A space capsule falling to earth would have: a) only kinetic energy b) only potential energy c) only chemical energy d) only heat energy e) both kinetic and potential energies - Answers e) both kinetic and potential energies 17) Energy can be stored in a flashlight battery as: a) electrical energy. b) chemical potential energy. c) heat energy. d) gravitational potential energy. e) electromagnetic energy. - Answers b) chemical potential energy. 18) A stalled car is pushed to the top of a hill, allowed to roll down the hill and started by "clutch-popping" (turning the key while releasing the clutch rapidly). At which point did the car have the greatest amount of potential gravitational energy? a) at the bottom of the hill b) at the top of the hill c) when restarted using the key and clutch d) being pushed to the top of the hill e) as it was rolling down the hill - Answers b) at the top of the hill 19) Which of the following has the greatest amount of gravitational potential energy? a) a case of books sitting on an end table b) a bowling ball released for the strike c) one diver at the highest point of the dive d) a bowling ball dropped from a plane e) a hawk diving for its prey - Answers d) a bowling ball dropped from a plane 20) Gravitational potential energy is defined as: