DMS 400 OB/GYN (WK 3) QUESTIONS WITH
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
A 19-year-old woman was referred for a pelvic sonogram
because of a palpable right adnexal mass and no other
symptoms. The sonographer was unable to identify a normal
right ovary but noticed a discrete area with hyperechoic dots and
lines, including a rounded echogenic area that produced a
shadow. At first, the area was thought to be bowel, but on
observation, there was no peristalsis. These findings are most
consistent with which type of ovarian mass?
a.Mucinous cystadenoma
b.Hemorrhagic corpus luteum
c.Follicular cyst
d.Cystic teratoma Correct Answers d.Cystic teratoma
A 25-year-old woman is referred for a pelvic sonogram because
of left lower quadrant pain. A pregnancy test is negative. The
sonogram reveals a 2.0 cm unilocular, simple cyst adjacent to
the left ovary. Which of the following statements is true
regarding this finding?
a.This is most likely an ectopic pregnancy and should be
handled on an emergent basis.
b.This most likely represents a periovarian cyst, and no
treatment is necessary.
c.The findings are most consistent with a cystic teratoma, and
surgical removal should be advised.
d.The findings are consistent with a corpus luteum. Correct
Answers b.This most likely represents a periovarian cyst, and
no treatment is necessary.
, A 29-year-old woman with left lower quadrant pain is referred
for a pelvic sonogram to rule out ovarian torsion. The images
demonstrate a 4.0 cm left ovarian mass containing a reticular
pattern of echoes with posterior enhancement and peripheral
ovarian flow by color Doppler imaging. A follow-up sonogram
performed 2 months later demonstrates a normal left ovary and a
2.5 cm dominant follicle on the right ovary. By the time of the
follow-up sonogram, the patient was asymptomatic. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis for the first
examination?
a.Intermittent ovarian torsion
b.Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
c.Cystic teratoma with rupture
d.Endometrioma with rupture Correct Answers b.Hemorrhagic
ovarian cyst
A 43-year-old woman with breast cancer and a history of
tamoxifen therapy is referred for a pelvic sonogram to rule out
endometrial pathology. Sonography reveals a normal-appearing
uterus. However, a mass noted in the right adnexa. Follow-up
pelvic sonography in 5 weeks demonstrates resolution of the
mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
b.Hemorrhagic cyst
c.Ovarian torsion
d.Endometrioma Correct Answers b.Hemorrhagic cyst
A 45-year-old woman undergoes a pelvic sonogram because of a
family history of ovarian cancer. Her CA 125 levels are not
elevated, and she is not experiencing any unusual symptoms
other than weight gain. Sonography reveals a 15 cm,
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
A 19-year-old woman was referred for a pelvic sonogram
because of a palpable right adnexal mass and no other
symptoms. The sonographer was unable to identify a normal
right ovary but noticed a discrete area with hyperechoic dots and
lines, including a rounded echogenic area that produced a
shadow. At first, the area was thought to be bowel, but on
observation, there was no peristalsis. These findings are most
consistent with which type of ovarian mass?
a.Mucinous cystadenoma
b.Hemorrhagic corpus luteum
c.Follicular cyst
d.Cystic teratoma Correct Answers d.Cystic teratoma
A 25-year-old woman is referred for a pelvic sonogram because
of left lower quadrant pain. A pregnancy test is negative. The
sonogram reveals a 2.0 cm unilocular, simple cyst adjacent to
the left ovary. Which of the following statements is true
regarding this finding?
a.This is most likely an ectopic pregnancy and should be
handled on an emergent basis.
b.This most likely represents a periovarian cyst, and no
treatment is necessary.
c.The findings are most consistent with a cystic teratoma, and
surgical removal should be advised.
d.The findings are consistent with a corpus luteum. Correct
Answers b.This most likely represents a periovarian cyst, and
no treatment is necessary.
, A 29-year-old woman with left lower quadrant pain is referred
for a pelvic sonogram to rule out ovarian torsion. The images
demonstrate a 4.0 cm left ovarian mass containing a reticular
pattern of echoes with posterior enhancement and peripheral
ovarian flow by color Doppler imaging. A follow-up sonogram
performed 2 months later demonstrates a normal left ovary and a
2.5 cm dominant follicle on the right ovary. By the time of the
follow-up sonogram, the patient was asymptomatic. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis for the first
examination?
a.Intermittent ovarian torsion
b.Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst
c.Cystic teratoma with rupture
d.Endometrioma with rupture Correct Answers b.Hemorrhagic
ovarian cyst
A 43-year-old woman with breast cancer and a history of
tamoxifen therapy is referred for a pelvic sonogram to rule out
endometrial pathology. Sonography reveals a normal-appearing
uterus. However, a mass noted in the right adnexa. Follow-up
pelvic sonography in 5 weeks demonstrates resolution of the
mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
b.Hemorrhagic cyst
c.Ovarian torsion
d.Endometrioma Correct Answers b.Hemorrhagic cyst
A 45-year-old woman undergoes a pelvic sonogram because of a
family history of ovarian cancer. Her CA 125 levels are not
elevated, and she is not experiencing any unusual symptoms
other than weight gain. Sonography reveals a 15 cm,
