NSG 6001 WEEK 3 MIDTERM EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026
2027 COURSE GRADED A+
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE
EXAM
1.A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain.
Which of the following should be included in the history and physical?
o Answer: Nature of the pain, timing of the pain, palliative and provocative
aspects, and associated symptoms (e.g., nausea/vomiting).
o Rationale: This is a comprehensive pain assessment approach, often
remembered by the mnemonic OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration,
Character, Aggravating/Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) .
2. A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation. Which drug
could be responsible?
o Answer: Pepto-Bismol (bismuth subsalicylate).
o Rationale: Bismuth subsalicylate is a known cause of constipation and can
also darken the stool .
3. A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should
be included in the differential diagnosis?
o Answer: Frequency, amount, and fluidity of stool; color and characteristics;
diet history; recent travel; medication use; and source of drinking water.
o Rationale: These factors help distinguish between infectious, dietary,
medication-induced, and functional causes of diarrhea .
4. Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for a patient with
irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
o Answer: High-fiber diet.
o Rationale: A high-fiber diet can help regulate bowel movements by
adding bulk to the stool, which helps manage both constipation and
diarrhea .
5. A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAID use. Which
of the following would be indicated for this client?
, o Answer: Treatment similar to a client with peptic ulcer disease (e.g.,
proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers) with emphasis on discontinuing the
NSAID.
o Rationale: The first step is to stop the offending agent (NSAID) if possible,
followed by standard therapy to heal the ulcer .
6. A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found
to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for
gonorrhea?
o Answer: Ceftriaxone.
o Rationale: Due to increasing antibiotic resistance, ceftriaxone (an
injectable cephalosporin) is the recommended first-line treatment for
gonorrhea, often given in combination with azithromycin or doxycycline to
also cover potential co-infection with chlamydia .
7. A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a
mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for
nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most
probably been exposed to?
o Answer: Chlamydia.
o Rationale: Chlamydia trachomatis is a common cause of nongonococcal
urethritis in men. In women, it often presents with symptoms like
mucopurulent discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia .
8. A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia.
Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
o Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
o Rationale: BPH is a very common condition in older men that can cause
lower urinary tract symptoms, including nocturia (frequent urination at
night), frequency, and hesitancy .
9. A patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride
(Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which
side effect?
o Answer: Erectile dysfunction.
o Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor, is known to have
sexual side effects, including decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and
ejaculatory dysfunction .
10. Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
o Answer: Absent cremasteric reflex.
, o Rationale: An absent cremasteric reflex (the reflex that causes the testicle
to rise when the inner thigh is stroked) is a key physical exam finding that
strongly suggests testicular torsion, a surgical emergency
11.
Chalazion - What is it?
o Answer: A chronic, sterile, lipogranulomatous inflammation lesion of the
meibomian gland (oil gland) in the eyelid.
o Rationale: It is a non-infectious inflammatory lesion caused by a blocked
meibomian gland .
12. What is a key differentiating factor between a Chalazion and a Hordeolum
(stye)?
o Answer: A chalazion is typically non-tender and located on the inner eyelid,
while a hordeolum is an acute infection that is painful and tender, often located
on the lash line .
13. Which model is primarily used to guide advanced nursing practice by
integrating theory, research, and clinical expertise?
o Answer: ANA Nursing Practice Model.
o Rationale: This model provides a framework for advanced practice by combining
theoretical knowledge with research evidence and clinical expertise to improve
patient outcomes .
14. A patient presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain that radiates to the
right shoulder. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation).
Rationale: Referred pain to the right shoulder (Kehr’s sign) occurs due to
irritation of the phrenic nerve from an inflamed gallbladder or diaphragm. This is
classic for biliary pathology.
15. A 55-year-old obese female reports episodic RUQ pain after eating fatty meals.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026
2027 COURSE GRADED A+
COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE
EXAM
1.A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain.
Which of the following should be included in the history and physical?
o Answer: Nature of the pain, timing of the pain, palliative and provocative
aspects, and associated symptoms (e.g., nausea/vomiting).
o Rationale: This is a comprehensive pain assessment approach, often
remembered by the mnemonic OLDCARTS (Onset, Location, Duration,
Character, Aggravating/Relieving factors, Timing, Severity) .
2. A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation. Which drug
could be responsible?
o Answer: Pepto-Bismol (bismuth subsalicylate).
o Rationale: Bismuth subsalicylate is a known cause of constipation and can
also darken the stool .
3. A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should
be included in the differential diagnosis?
o Answer: Frequency, amount, and fluidity of stool; color and characteristics;
diet history; recent travel; medication use; and source of drinking water.
o Rationale: These factors help distinguish between infectious, dietary,
medication-induced, and functional causes of diarrhea .
4. Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for a patient with
irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?
o Answer: High-fiber diet.
o Rationale: A high-fiber diet can help regulate bowel movements by
adding bulk to the stool, which helps manage both constipation and
diarrhea .
5. A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease caused by NSAID use. Which
of the following would be indicated for this client?
, o Answer: Treatment similar to a client with peptic ulcer disease (e.g.,
proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers) with emphasis on discontinuing the
NSAID.
o Rationale: The first step is to stop the offending agent (NSAID) if possible,
followed by standard therapy to heal the ulcer .
6. A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found
to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for
gonorrhea?
o Answer: Ceftriaxone.
o Rationale: Due to increasing antibiotic resistance, ceftriaxone (an
injectable cephalosporin) is the recommended first-line treatment for
gonorrhea, often given in combination with azithromycin or doxycycline to
also cover potential co-infection with chlamydia .
7. A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a
mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for
nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most
probably been exposed to?
o Answer: Chlamydia.
o Rationale: Chlamydia trachomatis is a common cause of nongonococcal
urethritis in men. In women, it often presents with symptoms like
mucopurulent discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia .
8. A 63-year-old man is seen in the clinic with a chief complaint of nocturia.
Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?
o Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
o Rationale: BPH is a very common condition in older men that can cause
lower urinary tract symptoms, including nocturia (frequent urination at
night), frequency, and hesitancy .
9. A patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride
(Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which
side effect?
o Answer: Erectile dysfunction.
o Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor, is known to have
sexual side effects, including decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and
ejaculatory dysfunction .
10. Which of the following data is indicative of testicular torsion?
o Answer: Absent cremasteric reflex.
, o Rationale: An absent cremasteric reflex (the reflex that causes the testicle
to rise when the inner thigh is stroked) is a key physical exam finding that
strongly suggests testicular torsion, a surgical emergency
11.
Chalazion - What is it?
o Answer: A chronic, sterile, lipogranulomatous inflammation lesion of the
meibomian gland (oil gland) in the eyelid.
o Rationale: It is a non-infectious inflammatory lesion caused by a blocked
meibomian gland .
12. What is a key differentiating factor between a Chalazion and a Hordeolum
(stye)?
o Answer: A chalazion is typically non-tender and located on the inner eyelid,
while a hordeolum is an acute infection that is painful and tender, often located
on the lash line .
13. Which model is primarily used to guide advanced nursing practice by
integrating theory, research, and clinical expertise?
o Answer: ANA Nursing Practice Model.
o Rationale: This model provides a framework for advanced practice by combining
theoretical knowledge with research evidence and clinical expertise to improve
patient outcomes .
14. A patient presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain that radiates to the
right shoulder. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Cholecystitis (gallbladder inflammation).
Rationale: Referred pain to the right shoulder (Kehr’s sign) occurs due to
irritation of the phrenic nerve from an inflamed gallbladder or diaphragm. This is
classic for biliary pathology.
15. A 55-year-old obese female reports episodic RUQ pain after eating fatty meals.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
