Module 5: BIOD 103/ BIOD103 (LATEST 2026/2027 UPDATE WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS) Medical Terminology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct – Portage Learning

…..DLDD Module 5: BIOD 103/ BIOD103 (LATEST 2026/2027 UPDATE WITH COMPLETE SOLUTIONS) Medical Terminology | Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct – Portage Learning Q. What are the functions of the plasma membrane? ANSWER 1. is an active and selective boundary between two watery mediums 2. denotes cell identity 3. receives external signals 4. transports materials Q. What are the 2 primary components of the plasma membrane? ANSWER the plasma membrane consists of both lipids and proteins. Q. What does "fluid mosaic" mean in reference to the plasma membrane? ANSWER The fluid mosaic model describes the structure of the plasma membrane as a mosaic of components —including phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and carbohydrates—that gives the membrane a fluid character. Q. Are the two sides of the membrane symmetrical or asymmetrical? ANSWER The cell membrane is an asymmetric structure. That means that the two sides of membrane are structurally and functionally different. Q. What are the 3 lipid components of the plasma membrane & what are their functions? ANSWER phospholipids, cholesterol, and glycolipids. Q. Which lipid makes up the majority of the membrane? ANSWER phospholipids Q. Describe a phospholipid? How are they oriented in the plasma membrane and why? ANSWER The phospholipids in the plasma membrane are arranged in two layers, called a phospholipid bilayer, with a hydrophobic, or water-hating, interior and a hydrophilic, or water-loving, exterior. Each phospholipid molecule has a head and two tails. Q. Name 4 functions of proteins in the plasma membrane. ANSWER Cell adhesion, energy transduction, signaling, cell recognition and transport are just some of the important biological processes carried out by membrane proteins. Q. What does selectively permeable mean? ANSWER Cell membrane allows certain substances through while others cannot Q. What is diffusion? ANSWER The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Q. Does diffusion require energy? ANSWER No-Passive transport Q. What molecules pass through the plasma membrane easily? ANSWER Small nonpolar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, are soluble in the lipid bilayer and therefore can readily cross cell membranes. Q. What is osmosis? ANSWER diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane Q. What is tonicity? ANSWER the ability of a surrounding solution to cause a cell to gain or lose water Q. What is isotonic, hypotonic & hypertonic solution? How do cells react in each? ANSWER If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, water will leave the cell, and the cell will shrink. In an isotonic environment, there is no net water movement, so there is no change in the size of the cell. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic environment, water will enter the cell, and the cell will swell. Q. What is passive transport? ANSWER The movement of materials across the cell membrane without using cellular energy Q. What is a concentration gradient? ANSWER difference in the concentration of a substance from one location to another Q. Is energy required for passive transport? ANSWER no energy is required Q. What is active transport? ANSWER the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy. Q. Is energy required for active transport? ANSWER Yes, ATP Q. What are endocytosis and exocytosis? ANSWER Endocytosis is a type of active transport where particles are brought into the cell by the formation of a vesicle from the cell membrane Q. Exocytosis is a type of active transport where particles are ANSWER released from a cell when a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane Q. What is phagocytosis? ANSWER Cell eating Q. What is the cell wall made of? Is it found in animal or plant cells? ANSWER Cell wall is present in both plant and animal cells. (ii) Cell membrane is present only in plant cells. (iii) Cell membrane is semi permeable. (iv) Cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Q. What are plasmodesmata? ANSWER channels between adjacent plant cells Q. What is the extracellular matrix between animal cells made of? ANSWER The extracellular matrix of animal cells is made up of proteins and carbohydrates. Q. What is the function of the extra-cellular matrix? ANSWER -helps hold cells together in tissues -protects/supports cell membrane Q. What are the 3 different junctions between animal cells? ANSWER occluding junctions, anchoring junctions, and communicating junctions. What is the function of adhesion junctions? cytoplasmic filaments pass between cells found in stretching organs What is the function of tight junctions? prevent movement of small molecules between cells What is the function of gap junctions? Gap junctions allow molecules to diffuse between the cells' cytoplasm to allow for communication Name the four chambers and four valves in the heart. Right and left atria, right and left ventricles, tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve, mitral valve, aortic valve. List the three layers of the heart muscle starting with the innermost layer. The endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium What is the function of the right side of the heart? What is the function of the left side of the heart? The function of the right side of the heart is to receive the deoxygenated blood from the body tissues and to pump it to the lungs. The function of the left side of the heart is to receive oxygenated blood from the lungs and to pump that blood out to the body tissues. Fill in the blanks (A through E) to complete the route of blood circulation starting and ending with the inferior and superior vena cava. Inferior and superior vena cava, (A), tricuspid valve, right ventricle, (B), pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, (C), (D), left ventricle, (E), aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillary bed, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cava. A-right atria, B-pulmonary valve, C-left atria, D-mitral valve, E-aortic valve What is the function of the capillary bed? The capillary bed consists of microscopic blood vessels that deliver oxygen and nutrients to the cells and removes CO2 and other waste products from the cells. Describe the flow of electricity through the heart. Where does the electricity initiate? What stimulates the contraction of the ventricles? The flow of electricity starts in the sinoatrial node. It travels through the internodal pathway through the atria to the atrioventricular node. From the AV node, it travels to the bundle of His and then into the two bundle branches. The two bundle branches stimulate the ventricles to contract What is a pulse? Name 2 of the 7 common pulse sites. Describe the difference between the systolic blood pressure and the diastolic blood pressure. A pulse is the rhythmic wave in the wall of an artery that corresponds to the heartbeat. The common pulse sites are the temporal, carotid, brachial, radial, femoral, popliteal, and dorsalis pedis. The systolic blood pressure is the pressure when the heart contracts, and the blood is pumped against the artery walls. The diastolic blood pressure is the pressure in the artery when the heart is relaxed. Name the structures in the airway that are responsible for trapping foreign bodies in the air as it comes into the lungs. The mucous membranes in the nose are responsible for producing mucus that traps bacteria, dust, pollen, and other foreign bodies in the air that is inhaled. Trace the flow of air from the entry point in the nose to the alveoli in the lungs. Nose, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli. What holds the trachea always open and why is that important? What structures in the trachea prevent foreign bodies from entering the lungs? The trachea is held open by cartilage, and this is important because the body constantly needs to breathe. The trachea is lined with a mucous membrane that is covered with cilia that can trap small foreign bodies in the trachea and can sweep them out of the windpipe. What is the primary muscle responsible for breathing? Define inspiration and expiration. The primary muscle that is responsible for breathing is the diaphragm. Inspiration is the act of drawing air into the lungs when the diaphragm flattens and contracts. Expiration is the act of pushing air out of the lungs as the diaphragm relaxes and rises. Which part of the brain controls the respiratory rate? Be familiar with the common respiratory rate ranges for a newborn, adolescent, and adult. The pons and the medulla oblongata control the respiratory rate. Table 5.4 shows the common respiratory rate ranges for various age groups. What is an electrocardiogram and a sphygmomanometer used for in the examination of the heart? An electrocardiogram is used to graph the electrical activity of the heart. (Section 5.2.5) A sphygmomanometer is used to measure the blood pressure. (Section 5.2.6) What is the pleura? What is the function of the pleura? How many lobes does the right lung have? The left lung? What are the apexes and bases of the lungs? The pleura is a specialized membrane that covers the lungs and is designed to decrease friction as the lungs move with breathing. The right lung has three lobes. The left lung has two lobes. The apex is the most superior part of the lung. The base is the most inferior part of the lung. A patient with atherosclerosis presents to their cardiologist with the complaint of angina pectoralis. A-Identify and define the combining forms found in the underlined terms. (Hint: there are 5 combining forms). B-What does this sentence mean? A-Ather/o means fatty substance. Scler/o means hardening. Cardi/o means heart. Angin/o means to choke. Pector/o means chest. B-This patient has heart disease due to fatty substances causing hardening of their coronary arteries (Atherosclerosis). This is causing the symptom of chest pain due to constriction of the arteries by the plaques (angina pectoralis), and they are seeking help from their heart physician (cardiologist). A patient suffered ischemia due to a thrombus that developed in their right atrium while experiencing the arrhythmia, atrial fibrillation. A-Identify and define the combining forms found in the underlined terms. (Hint: There are 3 combining forms. B-What does this sentence mean? A-Isch/o means to hold back. Thromb/o means blood clot. Rrhythm/o means rhythm. B-This patient had a blockage of blood flow due (ischemia) to a blood clot (thrombus) that caused damage to the tissues. The blood clot developed while the right atrium was not contracting normally because the electric conduction of the heart was irregular (arrhythmia). A patient has the complication of phlebitis after a venipuncture to draw a lipidpanel to evaluate their Chol, LDL, HDL, and triglycerides. A-Identify and define the combining forms found in the underlined terms. (Hint: There are 3 combining forms). B-What does this sentence mean? C-Define the abbreviations found in this sentence. D-What medical condition does this blood test diagnose? A-Phelb/o means vein. Ven/o means vein. Lip/o means fat. (Table 5.1) B-This patient has inflammation of the vein (phlebitis) after bloodwork was drawn from that vein (venipuncture) to assess their cholesterol or lipid panel. (Table 5.1 and cardiology flashcards) C-Chol means cholesterol, LDL means low density lipoprotein, HDL means high density lipoprotein. (Table 5.2) D-Hyperlipidemia is the condition of abnormally high blood lipids, and this test measures the lipids in the blood. This test is common in the assessment of coronary artery disease as hyperlipidemia is a modifiable risk factor in this disease. A cardiothoracic surgeon created an anastomosis between the aorta and a vein graft that was taken from a patient's leg during a CABG. A-Define cardiothoracic and anastomosis. B-What is a CABG? C-Why would this surgery be performed? A-Cardiothoracic means pertaining to the heart and the chest. (Table 5.1 and table 5.5) Anastomosis is a surgical connection between two blood vessels. (Cardiology flashcards). B-A CABG is a coronary artery bypass graft surgery. (Table 5.2) C-This surgery is done due to occlusions in the coronary arteries that restrict the blood flow to the heart muscle. The bypass grafts establish new blood flow to the area of the heart that was not receiving enough blood. A patient with left sided heart failure presents with cyanosis of the fingers and shortness of breath. An echocardiogram shows left ventricular hypertrophy and a decreased EF. A-Identify and define the combining terms in the underlined words. B-What is left ventricular hypertrophy? (Hint: The word parts for hypertrophy can be found in module 1) C-Identify the abbreviation for heart failure and define the abbreviation EF. D-Why would the patient be experiencing these symptoms? A-Cyan/o means dark blue. Echo means reflected sound. Cardi/o means heart. Ventricul/o means ventricule. (Table 5.1) B-Left ventricular hypertrophy is enlargement of the left ventricle of the heart. (Tables 1.7 and 1.8 in module 1) C-Heart failure is abbreviated HF. EF means ejection fraction. (Table 5.2) D-A patient with left sided heart failure (indicated by the enlargement of the left ventricle) would have shortness of breath because the blood is being backed up into the lungs. They also would have cyanosis because of poor cardiac output. The left ventricle is not efficiently pumping the blood from the lungs out into the body tissues. On auscultation of the heart, the physician heard a murmur indicating mitral valve stenosis. A-Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined words. B-What is a murmur? C-What are the abbreviations for the mitral valve and mitral valve stenosis? D-Name one type of surgery that this patient may need. A-Auscultate/o means to listen to. Mitr/o means mitral. Sten/o means narrowing. (Table 5.1) B-A murmur is an abnormal heart sound heard on auscultation of the heart. (Cardiology flashcards) C-Mitral valve can be abbreviated MV. Mitral valve stenosis can be abbreviated MS. (Table 5.2) D-This patient could have a valvuloplasty or valvoplasty to surgically repair the valve, a valvotomy to relieve the narrowing of the valve or an entire valvular replacement surgery. A patient with a myocardial infarction is immediately put on oximetry and given a medication to dilate their blood vessels. A-Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined words. B-What is the purpose of the oximetry? C-What is the abbreviation for a myocardial infarction? What are the abbreviations for the two types of myocardial infarctions? D-What is another term for a myocardial infarction? A-My/o means muscle. Cardi/o means heart. Infarct/o means infarct or necrosis. Ox/o means oxygen. Dilat/o means to widen. (Table 5.1) B-The purpose of oximetry is to measure the oxygen saturation of the blood. (Cardiology flashcards) C-The abbreviation for myocardial infarction is MI. The two types of myocardial infarctions are STEMI and NSTEMI. (Table 5.2) D-Another term for a myocardial infarction is a cardiac arrest. (Cardiology flashcards) A patient with a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm experienced sudden pain in their abdomen and hypotension. A-What is an aneurysm? B-Define hypotension. The opposite term is hypertension. What are two abbreviations associated with hypertension? C-If a patient with this condition survives to the hospital, they may undergo an endovascular repair of the aortic aneurysm. What does endovascular mean? A-An aneurysm is a widening of an artery due to a weakness in the vessel wall. (Cardiology flashcards) B-Hypotension is low blood pressure. (Cardiology flashcards) Two abbreviations associated with hypertension are HTN, meaning hypertension, and HPB, meaning high blood pressure. (Table 5.2) C-Endovascular means within a blood vessel. Endo is a prefix that means within. (Table 1.8 of module 1) and vascul/o is a combining form meaning vessel. (Table 5.1) A patient with PAD presents to the cardiologist complaining of claudication. The physician ordered a doppler hemodynamic study of the blood vessels of the abdomen and legs and the study showed an occlusion due to an atherosclerotic lesion in the femoral artery. A-Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined terms. B-Define PAD and hemodynamic. C-What is claudication? A-Cardi/o means heart. Occlus/o means to close. Ather/o means fatty substance. Scler/o means hardening. (Table 5.1) B-PAD means peripheral artery disease. (Table 5.2) Hemodynamic means a study of the heart's function and the movement of the blood and blood pressure. (Cardiology flashcards) C-Claudication is pain that is experienced in the legs and buttocks due to inadequate blood flow to the muscles of the legs. (Cardiology flashcards, section 5.4.6) A patient with a tumor in the left lower lung underwent a surgery to remove that section of the lung. A-What is the name of the surgery that is the removal of a lobe of the lung? B-What is the combining form that means lobe? C-What is another term for the inferior part of the lung? A-A lobectomy is a surgery to remove a lobe of a lung. (Respiratory flashcards) B-The combining form that means lobe is lob/o. (Table 5.5) C-Another term for the inferior part of the lung is the base. A patient with bronchitis complains of cough and dysphonia. A-What is the combining form in the underlined term? Define the term. B-Define dysphonia and cough. A-The combining form in bronchitis is bronch/o. This term means inflammation of the bronchi. (Table 5.5) B-Dysphonia means difficulty speaking or hoarseness. Cough is a forceful expulsion of air from the lungs. (Respiratory flashcards) A patient complains of orthopnea. The chest x-ray shows a pleural effusion, and the patient undergoes a thoracentesis as part of their treatment. A-Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined terms.B-What is a common abbreviation for chest x-ray?C-Define orthopnea and thoracentesis. A-Orth/o means straight. Pleur/o means pleura. Thorac/o means chest. (Table 5.5) B-A common abbreviation for chest x-ray is CXR. (Table 5.6) C-Orthopnea is the condition where a patient is unable to breathe comfortably when they are lying flat. Thoracentesis is a medical procedure where fluid is removed from the pleural space. (Respiratory flashcards) A patient with chronic tonsillitis undergoes a tonsillectomy. During their surgery, they are intubated and have an ET tube in place. A-Identify and define the combining form in the underlined word. Define the term. B-What type of procedure is a tonsillectomy? C-What does the abbreviation ET mean? A-Tonsill/o means tonsil. Tonsillitis means inflammation of the tonsils. (Table 5.5, respiratory flashcards) B-A tonsillectomy is the surgical removal of the tonsils. (Table 5.5 and table 1.7 of module 1) C-ET means endotracheal. (Table 5.6) A patient with TB presents with a fever, fatigue, weight loss, and a cough with hemoptysis. A chest x-ray shows consolidation in the right apex and mediastinal A-Identify and define the combining form in the underlined word. Define the term. B-Define hemoptysis and the abbreviation TB. C-What does the term apex refer to? D-What is the name of the infectious agent causing this condition? A-Mediastin/o means the mediastinum. Mediastinal means pertaining to the mediastinum, the area between the lungs that contains the heart. (Table 5.5 and Table 1.7 of module 1) B-Hemoptysis means spitting or coughing up blood. (Respiratory flashcards) TB means tuberculosis. (Table 5.6) C-The term apex means the most superior part of the lungs. This patient has evidence of a bacterial infection in the right upper part of the lungs. (Section 5.6.3) D-The infectious agent that caused this condition is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. (Respiratory flashcards) A patient with allergic rhinitis presents with the complaints of rhinorrhea, cough, and bronchospasm. Upon examination, the physician notes that the lungs are CTA. A-Identify and define the combining forms in the underlined terms. Define these terms. B-Define rhinorrhea. C-Define the abbreviation CTA. A-Rhin/o means nose. Bronch/o means bronchus. (Table 5.5). Rhinitis means inflammation of the nose. Bronchospasm means an involuntary movement or contraction of the bronchi. (Table 5.5 and Table 1.7 of module 1) B-Rhinorrhea means discharge from the nose. (Respiratory flashcards) C-CTA means clear to auscultation. (Table 5.6) Identify and define the arrhythmias that typically do not cause severe symptoms. Give an example of when these arrhythmias would be a normal finding. Sinus tachycardia is a heart rate that is faster than 100 beats per minute. Sinus tachycardia is a normal response to exercise or anxiety. Sinus bradycardia is a heart rate that is slower than 60 beats per minute. Sinus bradycardia can be a normal finding in healthy individuals who exercise frequently. Fill in the blank: A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for (A)? Explain why. A-a stroke. The arrhythmia atrial fibrillation is a fast, irregular rate. The atria are contracting quickly and irregularly, and the ventricles are responding irregularly. The blood is not completely emptying out of the atria or the ventricles due to this irregular rhythm. A clot may form that could then break away and travel to the brain where ischemia may develop List and describe the treatment options for patients with arrhythmias. 1-Medications can be used to slow the heart rate down or to cause the blood to not clot as easily. 2-Surgical ablation can destroy the parts of the atria that are sending the abnormal electrical signals. 3-A pacemaker can be inserted to initiate a heartbeat. 4-Cardioversion can shock the heart to restore a regular rate and rhythm. What are common symptoms of a heart attack? Patients can feel sudden chest pain at rest with sweating, weakness, and anxiety. They also may feel lightheaded, short of breath, and nauseated. One third of patients experiencing a MI will not feel chest pain at all. How is an electrocardiogram useful in the evaluation of a patient complaining of chest pain? The ECG can indicate that a patient is having an MI as well as show where the damage to the heart is occurring as the electrical conduction through the heart will change as the heart muscle dies. List and describe the treatment options for a patient with a myocardial infarction. 1-Percutaneous coronary interventions: Stenting and angioplasty. Angioplasty is where a balloon on the tip of a catheter is inserted into the coronary artery at the site of the occlusion and then inflated to open the artery. After angioplasty, a metal stent may be placed to hold the artery open. 2-A patient may require a CABG where new vessels are surgically placed around the occlusion. How is hypertension diagnosed? Hypertension is diagnosed by two separate blood pressure measurements on two different doctor office visits where the systolic measurement is greater than 120 mmHg and/or the diastolic measurement is greater than 90 mmHg. Which chronic disease of aging is hypertension closely associated with? What are the two types of this disease? Chronic heart failure is closely associated hypertension. The two types of this disease are left sided heart failure and right sided heart failure. What happens to the bronchioles during an asthma attack? The bronchioles become inflamed and swollen. They produce excessive amounts of mucus What are common triggers for an asthma attack? Allergens, exercise, sleep, cold air, drugs, household cleaners, air pollution, occupational dusts and vapors, infections, and stress What is spirometry? Identify and define the combining form in this term. Spirometry is the measurement of the forced expiratory volume of the lungs in 1 second and the forced vital capacity. It is used to assess the ability of a patient to move air during treatments for an asthma attack. (Section 5.8.1) Spir/o is the combining form, and it means to breathe. A patient presents with decreased O2 saturation on oximetry, cough with sputum production, fever, and shortness of breath. On auscultation, the practitioner hears decreased breath sounds over the left lower lung and crackles throughout the lungs. What is the likely diagnosis? Pneumonia, a bacterial infection of the lungs What is a pneumothorax? What is a common treatment for this condition when it is large and causing symptoms of pain and shortness of breath? A pneumothorax is a collection of air in the pleural space. A common treatment for a pneumothorax is placement of a chest tube. List and define the four different types of pneumothoraxes. 1-Spontaneous pneumothorax is where the air collects in the pleural space without any underlying lung disease or trauma. 2-Secondary pneumothorax is where there is underlying lung disease. A traumatic pneumothorax occurs because of trauma. An iatrogenic pneumothorax results as an adverse outcome from a procedure, such as a bronchoscope, thoracentesis, lung biopsy, or central line placement. A patient develops ARDS after experiencing severe burns from a house fire. A-What does ARDS stand for? B-What is happening in the alveoli? C-What are other conditions that can lead to ARDS? A-ARDS is the abbreviation for acute respiratory distress syndrome. (Table 5.6 and Section 5.8.5) B-The epithelial cells of the alveoli become damaged and can no longer exchange gas appropriately between the alveoli and the capillaries. (Section 5.8.5) C-Trauma, drugs and drug overdose, sepsis and shock, CABG surgeries, near drowning, aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs, and severe pneumonia can also be inciting events. Describe intubation and ventilation. Intubation is a procedure where a tube, called an endotracheal tube, is entered through the mouth into the bronchial tree. The ET tube is attached to a mechanical ventilator which is a machine that forces air into the lungs and assists the patient with breathing. What is taxonomy? the science of naming and classifying organisms What is binomial nomenclature? two word naming system What 2 words make up an organisms binomial name? How do you write it? The first part is the genus to which the species belongs, the second part is the species name. They are both italicized and the 1st letter of the first word is capital Who is Linnaeus? Father of taxonomy What is hierarchical system of classification? categories to organize living things, the higher the category, the more inclusive What is a taxon? a taxonomic group of any rank, such as a species, family, or class. What is the order of taxonomy categories from most inclusive to most exclusive? Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species What is a phylogenetic tree? diagram that shows how species are related to each other through common ancestors What common language is used in taxonomy? Why? Latin, it is a dead language What is phylogeny? The evolutionary history of a species or group of related species What are the 3 domains? Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya Domain Bacteria prokaryotic, unicellular organisms, asexual reproduction, Cyanobacteria and photosynthetic, most heterotrophic Domain Eukarya unicellular and multicellular organisms, have membrane bound nucleus, sexual reproduction common Domain Archaea Prokaryotic, unicellular, produce asexually, live in extreme environments, cell wall is diverse How many kingdoms are in domain eukarya? Four, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia Kingdom Protista diverse group, mostly single celled, filaments and colonies multicellular, no true tissues, nutrition diverse, examples: green algae, paramecia, slime molds Kingdom Fungi Form species, multicellular (except yeast), lack flagella not motile, cell walls of chitin, saptrotropic, Examples: mushrooms, molds, yeast Kingdom Plantae Primarily on land, multicellular, true tissues, organ-system level of organization, cell walls of cellulose, Photosynthetic, Examples: cacti, ferns and cypress trees Kingdom Animalia motile, multicellular, true tissues and organ systems, no cell walls, heterotrophic, Examples: worms, whales and insects What are primitive traits? traits inherited from distant ancestors What re derived traits? traits that just appeared by mutation in most recent ancestor What are homologous structures? structures that are related to each other through common descent, forelimbs of vertebrates contain same bones organized as they were in a common ancestor What are analogous structures? structures that have the same function but do not share a common ancestor, wings of insects and bats What are vestigial structures? a remnant structure that has lots its ancestral function, Ex. appendix, tail bone in man What is a virus? obligate intracellular parasite What are the components of a virus? Capsid, inner core, membrane outside What does the word "virus" mean? poison How can we see a virus? microscopes What is a bacteriophage? viruses that parasitize bacteria how does a virus infect a cell? capsid adheres with receptor on host cell and then takes over metabolic machinery of cell What best describes the relationship between the relationship between a virus and its host cell? Parasitism What are the steps of the lytic cycle? attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release What happens in attachment? capsid combines with receptor What happens in penetration? viral DNA enter host What happens in biosynthesis? viral components are synthesized What happens in maturation? assembly of viral components What happens in release? new virus leaves host cell What a prokaryote? single celled, lack true nucleus, bacteria and cynobacteria What are flagella? slender, hair-like extensions used by parasites for locomotion What are fimbriae? hairlike appendages that allow for attachment How do bacteria reproduce? binary fission What is conjugation? 2 bacteria exchang4edree DNA What is transformation? picks up free pieces of Dna from other prokaryotes What is transduction? viruses carry portions of bacterial DNA from one cell to the other what is an endospore? dormant condition that allows bacteria to survive and be dispersed and survive harshest enviroments What is an obligate anaerobe? cannot grow in the presence of oxygen What is a facultative anaerobe? can live with or without oxygen What is aerobe? requires oxygen to grow What is a photoautotroph? use solar energy to obtain energy What is a chemoautotroph? uses inorganic compounds to obtain energy What is a chemoheterotroph? takes organic nutrients from dead or decaying material What is a gram stain? It is a test to determine if a bacteria is gram positive or gram negative. What are the 3 shapes of bacteria? bacilli, cocci, spirilla What are the Archaea? Prokaryotes characterized as extremophiles that share some bacterial and some eukaryotic traits. What are rusts and smuts? What are methanogens? type of archaea found in anaerobic environments, produce methane What are halophiles? type of archaea require high salt concentrations for growth What are thermoacidophile? survive best at temperatures above 80C What domain are protists classified under? Eukarya What are the characteristics that all protists share? eukaryotic, have a nucleus, most have mitochondria, can be parasites, prefer aquatic or moist environments How do animal like protist obtain their nutrition? ingest food How do plant like protist obtain? photosynthesis How do fungal like protist obtain their nutrition? absorb their food from dead organic matter What is a cyst? a dormant cell with a resistant outer covering, can survive until favorable conditions return Why are protists important ecologically? They are decomposers which release vital nutrients back into environment How many supergroups are protists divided among? six How many groups of green algae? 2 chlorophytes and charophytes What is chlamydomonas? unicellular green algae What us volvox? single celled green algae aquatic What is ulva? sea lettuce, multicellular What is chara? multicellular green algae resembles land plants What is agar? Extracts from marine algae. Main function is a solidifying agent. What is kelp? How is it classified? brown algae, intertidal seaweeds What are diatoms? multicellular algae in ocean with silica shell What are water molds? most live in water, form furry growths when parasitize & decompose, filamentous body What causes red tides? production of neurotoxin by alexandrium catenella What are ciliates? single celled protozoan, have cilia to move, ingest whole food, examples: Paramecium, and stentor What is plasmodium? non motile parasite that causes malaria What does saprotrophic mean? Examples? feeds on dead and decaying matter, molds What is a pseudopod? Which protist has them? a temporary protrusion on the surface of an amoeboid cell of movement and feeding; amoeba and sarcodines What are the characteristics of dinoflagellates? A unicellular photosynthetic algae with two flagella situated in perpendicular grooves in cellulose plates covering the cell, half are heterotrophic and the other half are photosynthetic, many species are luminescent. What is a test? Which protists have them? a skeleton, foraminiferans and radiolarians Which protist do not have a mitochondria and can survive in no/low oxygen? parabasalids What is a kinetoplast? unicellular, flagellated, large mass of DNA located in mitochondria, causes chagas disease and african sleeping sickness Which protist were relatives of sponges? Choanoflagellates What are the characteristics of fungi? Fungi are eukaryotes that have cell walls, are heterotrophs that feed by absorbing their food, and use spores to reproduce. What is the study of fungi called? mycology Which fungi may have been instrumental in colonization of land by plants? mycorrhizae Describe the structure of multicellular fungus? body of fungus, hyphae, cell walls of chitin, extra energy stored as glycogen, yeasts are unicellular What are hyphae and mycelium? Hyphae are individual filaments that make up a fungus. Mycelium is a mass of hyphae. What is chitin and where is it found? it is a structural polysaccharide that is a polymer of an amino sugar. found in the cell walls of some fungi. What is a spore? reproductive cell that develops into a new organism without the need to fuse with another reproductive cell What is rust and smuts? Why are they important? Club fungi that parasitize cereal crops, important because of annual crop losses What is yeast? single celled fungi What is black bread mold? Zygospore fungi Describe the means of sexual reproduction in fungi three stages haploid hyphae, dikaryotic stage (2 nuclei), Diploid Zygote Describe the means of asexual reproduction in fungi usually involves the production of windblown spores, unicellular yeasts reproduce by budding What are the 6 groups of fungi? Microsporidia, Chytridiomycota, Zygospore Fungi, Glomeromycota, Ascomycota, Basidiomycota Microsporidians single celled, obligate, intracellular animal parasites, example E. cuniculi Chytrids Aquatic, simple, have gametes and spores, effect frog populations Zygospore A zygote surrounded by a hard, protective covering. saprotrophs example black bread mold What is mycorrhizae? mutualistic associations of fungi and roots Which fungus has affected the global from population? Chytrids What are the 3 types of lichens? crustose, foliose, fruticose What are lichens? symbiotic association of algae and fungi What is mold? ascomycota, accelerate spoilage and can release toxins Who is R.H. Whittaker? 1st to say Fungi are a separate group from protist, plants, and animals