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WGU D223 RED FLAG MANIA EXAM PREP | VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ACCURATE ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | FRAUD DETECTION, COMPLIANCE & RISK MANAGEMENT GUIDE

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Targeted collection of verified exam questions and accurate answers designed for WGU D223 Red Flag Mania assessment Includes in-depth rationales to help you fully understand fraud detection, identity theft prevention, and compliance requirements Covers key topics such as red flag identification, risk assessment, regulatory compliance, internal controls, and reporting procedures Structured to improve critical thinking and real-world application in financial and organizational risk management Ideal for WGU students and professionals preparing for compliance-focused exams and roles Enhances knowledge of industry standards and best practices for detecting and preventing fraud Perfect for focused revision and exam readiness, boosting confidence and performance on test day

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WGU D223 RED FLAG MANIA EXAM PREP |
VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ACCURATE ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES | FRAUD
DETECTION, COMPLIANCE & RISK
MANAGEMENT GUIDE
WGU D223 RED FLAG MANIA EXAM PREP

VERIFIED QUESTIONS & ACCURATE ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALE

400 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS




SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR RED FLAGS



QUESTION 1

A patient presents with sudden onset crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm and
jaw with diaphoresis. Which finding is the most critical red flag for acute myocardial
infarction?

A) Mild fatigue lasting two weeks

B) Occasional heartburn after meals

C) Low-grade fever for three days
D) Crushing chest pain with diaphoresis and left arm radiation

E) Mild ankle swelling at the end of the day

CORRECT ANSWER: D) Crushing chest pain with diaphoresis and left arm
radiation

RATIONALE: Crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw accompanied
by diaphoresis are the hallmark red flags of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI). These
symptoms result from myocardial ischemia and stimulation of the sympathetic nervous
system. Immediate emergency intervention including ECG, troponin levels, and possible
reperfusion therapy is required to prevent irreversible myocardial damage or death.


QUESTION 2

,A nurse assesses a patient and notes a new onset S3 heart sound, bilateral crackles in
the lungs, and bilateral pitting edema. These findings are red flags for which condition?

A) Pulmonary embolism

B) Pneumonia

C) Acute decompensated heart failure

D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

E) Deep vein thrombosis

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Acute decompensated heart failure

RATIONALE: The combination of an S3 gallop (indicative of increased ventricular
filling pressure), bilateral pulmonary crackles (fluid in the alveoli), and bilateral pitting
edema (venous congestion) are classic red flags of acute decompensated heart failure.
The S3 sound is caused by rapid ventricular filling in a non-compliant ventricle. These
findings require urgent diuretic therapy and hemodynamic monitoring.



QUESTION 3

A patient reports a sudden "tearing" or "ripping" sensation in the back, radiating to the
abdomen. Blood pressure readings differ between both arms. Which condition should
the nurse suspect?

A) Acute myocardial infarction

B) Pulmonary embolism

C) Pericarditis
D) Aortic dissection

E) Angina pectoris

CORRECT ANSWER: D) Aortic dissection

RATIONALE: Aortic dissection classically presents with sudden severe tearing or
ripping chest or back pain. A blood pressure differential greater than 20 mmHg between
arms is a critical red flag caused by the dissection flap occluding one of the subclavian
arteries. This is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate surgical or
endovascular intervention. Delaying treatment increases mortality by approximately 1–
2% per hour.

,QUESTION 4

A patient with known atrial fibrillation suddenly develops right-sided weakness, slurred
speech, and facial drooping. What is the priority concern?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hypertensive urgency

C) Migraine with aura
D) Cardioembolic stroke

E) Transient ischemic attack resolved

CORRECT ANSWER: D) Cardioembolic stroke

RATIONALE: Atrial fibrillation is the most common cardiac cause of embolic
stroke. Thrombi form in the left atrial appendage due to blood stasis and can embolize
to cerebral vessels. The sudden onset of focal neurological deficits — weakness,
slurred speech, and facial drooping — in a patient with atrial fibrillation strongly
suggests cardioembolic stroke. Immediate CT/MRI and thrombolysis evaluation within
the therapeutic window are critical.



QUESTION 5

A nurse notes that a patient's jugular venous distension (JVD) is visible at 45 degrees.
This is a red flag for which condition?

A) Hypovolemia
B) Dehydration

C) Right-sided heart failure or cardiac tamponade

D) Aortic stenosis

E) Mitral valve prolapse

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Right-sided heart failure or cardiac tamponade

RATIONALE: JVD at 45 degrees indicates elevated central venous pressure, a
red flag for right-sided heart failure or cardiac tamponade. In right heart failure, the right
ventricle cannot pump blood forward, causing venous backup. In cardiac tamponade,

, pericardial fluid compresses the heart. JVD is part of Beck's Triad (JVD, muffled heart
sounds, hypotension) seen in tamponade, which requires immediate pericardiocentesis.



QUESTION 6

A patient presents with fever, a new heart murmur, and petechiae on the palms and
soles. These findings are red flags for which condition?

A) Rheumatic fever only

B) Systemic lupus erythematosus

C) Septic shock
D) Infective endocarditis

E) Viral pericarditis

CORRECT ANSWER: D) Infective endocarditis

RATIONALE: The triad of fever, a new or changing heart murmur, and peripheral
embolic phenomena (petechiae, Janeway lesions on palms/soles, Osler nodes) are red
flags for infective endocarditis. Bacteria colonize heart valves forming vegetations. The
modified Duke criteria are used for diagnosis. Blood cultures and echocardiography are
essential. Untreated, vegetations can embolize causing stroke, pulmonary emboli, or
septic emboli.



QUESTION 7

A patient reports palpitations, syncope, and a family history of sudden cardiac death at a
young age. An ECG shows a prolonged QT interval. What is the most critical concern?

A) Benign palpitations

B) Atrial flutter
C) Risk for torsades de pointes and sudden cardiac death

D) First-degree AV block

E) Sinus bradycardia

CORRECT ANSWER: C) Risk for torsades de pointes and sudden cardiac
death

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