NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
NSG 3160 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 4 PREP NEWEST 2025/2026
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 58-year-old female reports chronic joint pain affecting both hands
symmetrically. She states stiffness is worst in the morning but improves after
activity. On exam, there is joint swelling and decreased ROM. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Contracture
Correct Answer: B. Rheumatoid arthritis
Rationale: This scenario highlights classic RA findings—symmetrical joint
involvement, prolonged morning stiffness (>30–60 minutes), and improvement
with activity. RA is an autoimmune inflammatory condition affecting synovial
joints. Osteoarthritis is typically asymmetrical and worsens with activity, while
ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine.
A 72-year-old client reports knee pain that worsens throughout the day and
improves with rest. The nurse notes crepitus during joint movement. What is the
most likely cause of this presentation?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Synovitis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Ankylosis
1|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
Correct Answer: C. Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by cartilage
breakdown. Key findings include pain worsening with use, crepitus, and
asymmetrical joint involvement. Crepitation occurs due to roughened cartilage
surfaces rubbing together.
A nurse is assessing a client who cannot fully extend their elbow due to long-term
immobility. The joint itself is not fused. Which condition does this describe?
A. Ankylosis
B. Subluxation
C. Contracture
D. Dislocation
Correct Answer: C. Contracture
Rationale: Contractures result from muscle/tendon shortening, not joint fusion.
Ankylosis involves actual fusion of bones, making the distinction critical in
assessment.
A patient presents after a sports injury with complete displacement of the
shoulder joint. Which term best describes this injury?
A. Subluxation
B. Dislocation
C. Sprain
D. Strain
Correct Answer: B. Dislocation
Rationale: A dislocation is a complete loss of joint alignment, whereas subluxation
is only partial. This distinction is frequently tested clinically.
2|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
A nurse asks a patient to bend their arm at the elbow, decreasing the angle
between bones. Which movement is being performed?
A. Extension
B. Flexion
C. Rotation
D. Circumduction
Correct Answer: B. Flexion
Rationale: Flexion decreases the angle between bones (e.g., bending the elbow).
Extension does the opposite by increasing the angle.
A nurse instructs a patient to move their chin backward while keeping it parallel to
the ground. What movement is this?
A. Protraction
B. Retraction
C. Rotation
D. Extension
Correct Answer: B. Retraction
Rationale: Retraction is moving a body part backward in a horizontal plane, such
as pulling the chin back. Protraction would move it forward.
During an assessment, the nurse taps over the median nerve and the patient
reports tingling in the fingers. What does this indicate?
A. Positive Phalen test
B. Positive Tinel sign
C. Ulnar nerve damage
D. Radial nerve injury
Correct Answer: B. Positive Tinel sign
3|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
Rationale: Tinel sign involves percussion over a nerve, producing tingling if
compressed (e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome). Phalen requires wrist flexion.
A nurse auscultates loud gurgling bowel sounds in a patient with diarrhea. How
should this be documented?
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Absent bowel sounds
C. Borborygmi
D. Normal bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C. Borborygmi
Rationale: Borborygmi are loud, hyperactive bowel sounds associated with
increased motility, such as diarrhea or obstruction.
A patient presents with severe RLQ pain that worsens when pressure is released
after palpation. Which mechanism explains this finding?
A. Direct inflammation
B. Rebound tenderness
C. Muscle guarding
D. Visceral pain
Correct Answer: B. Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness (Blumberg sign) occurs when pain is worse upon
release of pressure, indicating peritoneal irritation, commonly seen in appendicitis.
A nurse is assessing an older adult who reports difficulty swallowing and frequent
coughing during meals. What is the most likely underlying cause?
A. Increased gastric acid
B. Delayed esophageal emptying
4|Page
NSG 3160 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 4 PREP NEWEST 2025/2026
ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
|ALREADY GRADED A+||BRAND NEW VERSION!!
A 58-year-old female reports chronic joint pain affecting both hands
symmetrically. She states stiffness is worst in the morning but improves after
activity. On exam, there is joint swelling and decreased ROM. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Contracture
Correct Answer: B. Rheumatoid arthritis
Rationale: This scenario highlights classic RA findings—symmetrical joint
involvement, prolonged morning stiffness (>30–60 minutes), and improvement
with activity. RA is an autoimmune inflammatory condition affecting synovial
joints. Osteoarthritis is typically asymmetrical and worsens with activity, while
ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine.
A 72-year-old client reports knee pain that worsens throughout the day and
improves with rest. The nurse notes crepitus during joint movement. What is the
most likely cause of this presentation?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Synovitis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Ankylosis
1|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
Correct Answer: C. Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by cartilage
breakdown. Key findings include pain worsening with use, crepitus, and
asymmetrical joint involvement. Crepitation occurs due to roughened cartilage
surfaces rubbing together.
A nurse is assessing a client who cannot fully extend their elbow due to long-term
immobility. The joint itself is not fused. Which condition does this describe?
A. Ankylosis
B. Subluxation
C. Contracture
D. Dislocation
Correct Answer: C. Contracture
Rationale: Contractures result from muscle/tendon shortening, not joint fusion.
Ankylosis involves actual fusion of bones, making the distinction critical in
assessment.
A patient presents after a sports injury with complete displacement of the
shoulder joint. Which term best describes this injury?
A. Subluxation
B. Dislocation
C. Sprain
D. Strain
Correct Answer: B. Dislocation
Rationale: A dislocation is a complete loss of joint alignment, whereas subluxation
is only partial. This distinction is frequently tested clinically.
2|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
A nurse asks a patient to bend their arm at the elbow, decreasing the angle
between bones. Which movement is being performed?
A. Extension
B. Flexion
C. Rotation
D. Circumduction
Correct Answer: B. Flexion
Rationale: Flexion decreases the angle between bones (e.g., bending the elbow).
Extension does the opposite by increasing the angle.
A nurse instructs a patient to move their chin backward while keeping it parallel to
the ground. What movement is this?
A. Protraction
B. Retraction
C. Rotation
D. Extension
Correct Answer: B. Retraction
Rationale: Retraction is moving a body part backward in a horizontal plane, such
as pulling the chin back. Protraction would move it forward.
During an assessment, the nurse taps over the median nerve and the patient
reports tingling in the fingers. What does this indicate?
A. Positive Phalen test
B. Positive Tinel sign
C. Ulnar nerve damage
D. Radial nerve injury
Correct Answer: B. Positive Tinel sign
3|Page
, NSG 3160 Health Assessment Exam 4 PREP
Rationale: Tinel sign involves percussion over a nerve, producing tingling if
compressed (e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome). Phalen requires wrist flexion.
A nurse auscultates loud gurgling bowel sounds in a patient with diarrhea. How
should this be documented?
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Absent bowel sounds
C. Borborygmi
D. Normal bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C. Borborygmi
Rationale: Borborygmi are loud, hyperactive bowel sounds associated with
increased motility, such as diarrhea or obstruction.
A patient presents with severe RLQ pain that worsens when pressure is released
after palpation. Which mechanism explains this finding?
A. Direct inflammation
B. Rebound tenderness
C. Muscle guarding
D. Visceral pain
Correct Answer: B. Rebound tenderness
Rationale: Rebound tenderness (Blumberg sign) occurs when pain is worse upon
release of pressure, indicating peritoneal irritation, commonly seen in appendicitis.
A nurse is assessing an older adult who reports difficulty swallowing and frequent
coughing during meals. What is the most likely underlying cause?
A. Increased gastric acid
B. Delayed esophageal emptying
4|Page
