Pharmacology Practice Quiz
Questions with Correct Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute
anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect
has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - ANSWERSClient states chest pain
is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases
ischemia and reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was
relieved, but are not as significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C)
may indicate a reduction in pain, or a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with
a prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse
advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - ANSWERSProthrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for
warfarin therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B).
A perfusion might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is
monitored for the client receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin
cannot be measured (D).
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional
drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWERSPenicillin
,Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution
before administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute
myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and
afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWERSNitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and
decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta
adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases
afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen consumption and preload.
Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents
vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-
release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWERSEvery 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best
around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for
breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for
continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is
the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the
next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWERSImmediately
before the next antibiotic dose is given
, Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is
typically just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the
optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
LMWH. During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. -
ANSWERSThis medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries.
Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which
observation by the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is
being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - ANSWERSLessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the
brain). Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as
involuntary movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of
Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect
(D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for
the nurse to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - ANSWERSBlood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this
medication because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent.
Questions with Correct Answers
Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute
anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect
has been achieved?
A) Client states chest pain is relieved.
B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - ANSWERSClient states chest pain
is relieved.
Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases
ischemia and reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was
relieved, but are not as significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C)
may indicate a reduction in pain, or a potentially serious side effect of the medication.
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with
a prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse
advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
A) Perfusion scan.
B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - ANSWERSProthrombin Time (PT/INR)
Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for
warfarin therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B).
A perfusion might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is
monitored for the client receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin
cannot be measured (D).
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a
postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional
drug allergy before administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides. - ANSWERSPenicillin
,Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as
cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution
before administering this drug.
A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute
myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and
afterload?
A) Nitroglycerin.
B) Propranolol (Inderal).
C) Morphine.
D) Captopril (Capoten). - ANSWERSNitroglycerin
Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and
decreases contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta
adrenergic blocker that decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases
afterload. Morphine (C) decreases myocardial oxygen consumption and preload.
Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents
vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and afterload.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-
release oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - ANSWERSEvery 12 hours
Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve
moderate to severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best
around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for
breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for
continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may
jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.
A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is
the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?
A) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. B) Immediately before the
next antibiotic dose is given.
C) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked.
D) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. - ANSWERSImmediately
before the next antibiotic dose is given
, Rationale: Trough levels are drawn when the blood level is at its lowest, which is
typically just before the next dose is given (B). (A, C, and D) do not describe the
optimum time for obtaining a trough level of an antibiotic.
After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin
LMWH. During administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is
receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
B) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection.
C) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs.
D) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. -
ANSWERSThis medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation
Rationale: Unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is an
anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin-mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and is
given prophylactically to prevent postoperative venous thrombosis (A) or to treat
pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis following knee and abdominal surgeries.
Heparin does not dissolve clots but prevents clot extension or further clot formation (C).
The anticoagulant heparin does not prevent infection (B) or influence operative wound
healing (D).
A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which
observation by the nurse should indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is
being achieved?
A) Decreased blood pressure.
B) Lessening of tremors.
C) Increased salivation.
D) Increased attention span. - ANSWERSLessening of tremors
Rationale: Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the
brain). Increased amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as
involuntary movements, resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of
Sinemet. Decreased drooling would be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect
(D).
A client is receiving metoprolol Lopressor SR. What assessment is most important for
the nurse to obtain?
A) Temperature.
B) Lung sounds.
C) Blood pressure.
D) Urinary output. - ANSWERSBlood pressure
Rationale: It is most important to monitor the blood pressure (C) of clients taking this
medication because Lopressor is an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, antihypertensive agent.
