CEA PREP COMPLETE EXAM WITH
OVER 300 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS VERIFIED
AND GRADED A PLUS
Your 25-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of hypotension,
tachycardia, fever, diarrhea, lower abdominal pain, and erythematous palms.
Based on these symptoms, what element should be included in the physical
examination?
Pelvic exam
Rationale: These symptoms suggest the possibility of toxic shock syndrome
and should include ruling out retained tampons or contraceptive items with a
pelvic exam.
A nurse practitioner examines a female patient with suspected
trichomoniasis, which is a disease cause by:
A flagellated protozoon
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by
a parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is one of the most common and
curable STIs, affecting both men and women, though women are more
frequently symptomatic. Trichomoniasis is a protozoan parasite responsible
for the infection.
A 41-year-old female enters the clinic with concerns of a lump in her breast.
On examination, the nurse practitioner finds a palpable mass in the left outer
quadrant that is mobile. A mammogram reveals a hypoechoic mass. The
next step the nurse practitioner would take is to order a:
left breast ultrasound.
,Rationale: A left breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test used to
evaluate abnormalities in the breast tissue. It uses high-frequency sound
waves to produce images of the inside of the breast. If a mammogram
reveals an abnormality such as a lump, mass, or area of increased density,
an ultrasound can provide more detailed information.
An adult female patient presents to the clinic for a sudden onset of severe
lower abdominal pain. She describes the pain as stabbing, and denies
nausea, vomiting, fever, or chills. The pain does not radiate. To confirm the
diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy, the nurse practitioner should order which
imaging study?
Ultrasound
Rationale: Confirming an ectopic pregnancy primarily relies on transvaginal
ultrasound and serial measurements of beta-hCG levels. These tests help
determine the location of the pregnancy and monitor the progression of hCG
levels. In cases where imaging and hormone levels are inconclusive, further
diagnostic procedures such as laparoscopy may be necessary. Prompt and
accurate diagnosis is essential to manage ectopic pregnancy effectively and
prevent complications.
Your patient with a family history of lung disease presents to urgent care with
a diagnosis of shortness of breath. Which screening test is commonly used to
evaluate the lung for nodules?
Low dose screening CT
Rationale: Low-dose CT scan is the most used screening of these options to
evaluate for pulmonary lesions.
An adult male presents for re-evaluation of his asthma control. Last month,
his asthma regimen was increased to a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and
short acting beta agonist as needed. He states that he uses his rescue
,inhaler one time a week and has awoken with asthma symptoms once in the
last month. His peak flow is in the green zone. The most appropriate plan for
this patient is to:
Continue on current therapy
Rationale: When peak flow readings are in the green zone, it indicates that a
person's asthma is well-controlled. The peak flow meter is a device used to
measure how well air moves out of the lungs, and it helps to monitor asthma
and guide treatment.
A patient with a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe with no brain or body
lesions and a PET scan showing no evidence of other lesions in the body
would be ruled out of which of the following stages of lung cancer?
Stage IV
Rationale: Stage IV requires evidence of distal metastasis, which this patient
does not have.
In emphysema management the first step in treating patients with mild
disease is the use of:
short acting beta agonist
Rationale: Short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) play an important role in the
management of emphysema, which is a form of Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease (COPD). SABAs, such as albuterol (salbutamol) and
levalbuterol, work by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the smooth
muscle of the airways. This leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation,
which helps to open up the airways and improve airflow.
Your patient has evidence of Kerley B lines. Which of the following diagnoses
might this suggest?
Congestive heart failure
, Rationale: Layering of fluid with gravity as is evident with Kerley B lines
suggest congestive heart failure. The rest are not related to pulmonary
edema.
Which two lobes of the lung are most associated with aspiration pneumonia?
Right middle and right lower
Rationale: This is due in part to the anatomical tendency at the carina of a
straighter shot towards the right middle and right lower lobes.
Which of the following agents is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
Haemophilus influenzae
Rationale: Aspergillosis, influenza A, and COVID-19 are all respiratory
pathogens; however, Flu A and COVID-19 are viruses, and aspergillosis is
fungal. Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterium commonly associated with
pneumonia.
A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) presents with an acute exacerbation, including increased sputum
production and dyspnea. He has no known drug allergies. What is the most
appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an effective antibiotic
choice for the treatment of acute exacerbations of COPD due to its broad-
spectrum coverage, ability to overcome beta-lactamase-mediated resistance,
proven clinical efficacy, good tolerability, and flexibility in dosing. It is
particularly useful in treating bacterial infections caused by common
respiratory pathogens, including those that produce beta-lactamase, making
it a reliable option for managing exacerbations in COPD patients.
OVER 300 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS VERIFIED
AND GRADED A PLUS
Your 25-year-old female patient presents with symptoms of hypotension,
tachycardia, fever, diarrhea, lower abdominal pain, and erythematous palms.
Based on these symptoms, what element should be included in the physical
examination?
Pelvic exam
Rationale: These symptoms suggest the possibility of toxic shock syndrome
and should include ruling out retained tampons or contraceptive items with a
pelvic exam.
A nurse practitioner examines a female patient with suspected
trichomoniasis, which is a disease cause by:
A flagellated protozoon
Rationale: Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by
a parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is one of the most common and
curable STIs, affecting both men and women, though women are more
frequently symptomatic. Trichomoniasis is a protozoan parasite responsible
for the infection.
A 41-year-old female enters the clinic with concerns of a lump in her breast.
On examination, the nurse practitioner finds a palpable mass in the left outer
quadrant that is mobile. A mammogram reveals a hypoechoic mass. The
next step the nurse practitioner would take is to order a:
left breast ultrasound.
,Rationale: A left breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test used to
evaluate abnormalities in the breast tissue. It uses high-frequency sound
waves to produce images of the inside of the breast. If a mammogram
reveals an abnormality such as a lump, mass, or area of increased density,
an ultrasound can provide more detailed information.
An adult female patient presents to the clinic for a sudden onset of severe
lower abdominal pain. She describes the pain as stabbing, and denies
nausea, vomiting, fever, or chills. The pain does not radiate. To confirm the
diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy, the nurse practitioner should order which
imaging study?
Ultrasound
Rationale: Confirming an ectopic pregnancy primarily relies on transvaginal
ultrasound and serial measurements of beta-hCG levels. These tests help
determine the location of the pregnancy and monitor the progression of hCG
levels. In cases where imaging and hormone levels are inconclusive, further
diagnostic procedures such as laparoscopy may be necessary. Prompt and
accurate diagnosis is essential to manage ectopic pregnancy effectively and
prevent complications.
Your patient with a family history of lung disease presents to urgent care with
a diagnosis of shortness of breath. Which screening test is commonly used to
evaluate the lung for nodules?
Low dose screening CT
Rationale: Low-dose CT scan is the most used screening of these options to
evaluate for pulmonary lesions.
An adult male presents for re-evaluation of his asthma control. Last month,
his asthma regimen was increased to a low dose inhaled corticosteroid and
short acting beta agonist as needed. He states that he uses his rescue
,inhaler one time a week and has awoken with asthma symptoms once in the
last month. His peak flow is in the green zone. The most appropriate plan for
this patient is to:
Continue on current therapy
Rationale: When peak flow readings are in the green zone, it indicates that a
person's asthma is well-controlled. The peak flow meter is a device used to
measure how well air moves out of the lungs, and it helps to monitor asthma
and guide treatment.
A patient with a solitary nodule in the right upper lobe with no brain or body
lesions and a PET scan showing no evidence of other lesions in the body
would be ruled out of which of the following stages of lung cancer?
Stage IV
Rationale: Stage IV requires evidence of distal metastasis, which this patient
does not have.
In emphysema management the first step in treating patients with mild
disease is the use of:
short acting beta agonist
Rationale: Short-acting beta agonists (SABAs) play an important role in the
management of emphysema, which is a form of Chronic Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease (COPD). SABAs, such as albuterol (salbutamol) and
levalbuterol, work by stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the smooth
muscle of the airways. This leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation,
which helps to open up the airways and improve airflow.
Your patient has evidence of Kerley B lines. Which of the following diagnoses
might this suggest?
Congestive heart failure
, Rationale: Layering of fluid with gravity as is evident with Kerley B lines
suggest congestive heart failure. The rest are not related to pulmonary
edema.
Which two lobes of the lung are most associated with aspiration pneumonia?
Right middle and right lower
Rationale: This is due in part to the anatomical tendency at the carina of a
straighter shot towards the right middle and right lower lobes.
Which of the following agents is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
Haemophilus influenzae
Rationale: Aspergillosis, influenza A, and COVID-19 are all respiratory
pathogens; however, Flu A and COVID-19 are viruses, and aspergillosis is
fungal. Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterium commonly associated with
pneumonia.
A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) presents with an acute exacerbation, including increased sputum
production and dyspnea. He has no known drug allergies. What is the most
appropriate initial antibiotic treatment?
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Rationale: Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) is an effective antibiotic
choice for the treatment of acute exacerbations of COPD due to its broad-
spectrum coverage, ability to overcome beta-lactamase-mediated resistance,
proven clinical efficacy, good tolerability, and flexibility in dosing. It is
particularly useful in treating bacterial infections caused by common
respiratory pathogens, including those that produce beta-lactamase, making
it a reliable option for managing exacerbations in COPD patients.
