CEA Exam – assessment Week 3 Full Length
Practice Exam
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
Score for this quiz: 122 out of 150
Submitted Jan 2026 at 2:45pm
This attempt took 180 minutes.
Question 1
pts
An older adult with diabetes mellitus presents with leg cramps. She states that the cramps as
worst when walking to the supermarket. If she stops to rest, the pain subsides. The nurse
practitioner knows that this patient needs a workup for:
Popliteal aneurism
Intermittent claudication
Deep vein thrombosis
Benign nocturnal leg cramps
Question 2
pts
Your patient presents with bradycardia, severe nausea, and substernal pain. STEMI was
identified on the EKG. Which region of the heart is most likely involved?
Correct!
Inferior Wall
The inferior wall, fed by the right coronary artery is commonly associated with these symptoms.
Remember right equals rate as it is the blood supply for the SA and AV nodes in most patients.
pg. 1
,Dyspepsia is common in RCA territory injury due to vagal stimulation not typical of other areas.
Correct!
1 year
Remember than with pediatric patients with diabetes, the easiest way to remember the
evaluation schedule is to perform lipid checks is with annual physicals.
Question 4
pts
An 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset unilateral leg
pain and pallor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Deep vein thrombosisect!
Acute arterial occlusion
Cellulitis
Peripheral artery disease
Question 5
pts
An adult patient recently placed on angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for
hypertension returns with a report of a dry, persistent cough. On examination, no indication of
a respiratory problem is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Correct!
Switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
Obtain a chest X-ray with posterior-anterior and lateral views
pg. 2
,Continue the ACE inhibitor and prescribe a mild antitussive
Continue the current treatment regimen
Question 6
pts
A 65 year old alcoholic patient presents with a new onset of persistent palpitations and anxiety
for the past 3 days. Your monitor is applied and an irregularly irregular rhythm is noted. Which
of the following evaluations should be performed first in your treatment?
Ordering a BNP and Vitamin D level
Prescribing amiodarone 150mg IV bolus
Correct!
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
After 48-72 hrs of atrial fibrillation, the presence of thrombus must be excluded before any rhythm-
modifying intervention. Transthoracic echo is the gold standard for a quick look for any clot burden,
most likely found in the left atrial appendage. Amiodarone is likely to convert the patient to a sinus
rhythm and needs to be done only after determining no evidence of thrombus is present. BNP and
vitamin D are inconsequential in the treatment of A-fib (TSH, serum K, and magnesium would be
valuable). Bilateral radial pulse checks are not assessed for a-fib, but rather for patients with concern for
aortic dissection and/or vascular blockage (subclavian stenosis, thoracic outlet syndrome, etc)
Palpating pulses bilaterally to identify unilateral pulse deficit
Question 7
pts
A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset leftsided
weakness and slurred speech. What is the most likely diagnosis?
pg. 3
, Seizure
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Correct!
Stroke
The patient with a history of atrial fibrillation for over 48 hours without anticoagulation is at risk
of an embolic stroke, secondary to mobilization of a thrombus (90% of which occur in the left
atrial appendage). A patient exhibiting signs of a stroke such as unilateral weakness and slurred
speech, in addition to being evaluated for stroke with cranial imaging to rule out a hemorrhagic
etiology, should also be evaluated for a cardiac etiology as noted above with an
echocardiogram.
Question 8
pts
What is the key long-term benefit of using carvedilol for patients with coronary artery disease
and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
Reduction in cardiac output
Increase in libido
Baseline reduction of blood pressure
Correct!
Potential increase in ejection fraction
EF increase is a key reason for using carvedilol over metoprolol for patients with low EF states. Libido
unfortunately can be negatively impacted by any beta blocker. Cardiac output should only improve with
pg. 4
Practice Exam
Attempt History
Attempt Time Score
Score for this quiz: 122 out of 150
Submitted Jan 2026 at 2:45pm
This attempt took 180 minutes.
Question 1
pts
An older adult with diabetes mellitus presents with leg cramps. She states that the cramps as
worst when walking to the supermarket. If she stops to rest, the pain subsides. The nurse
practitioner knows that this patient needs a workup for:
Popliteal aneurism
Intermittent claudication
Deep vein thrombosis
Benign nocturnal leg cramps
Question 2
pts
Your patient presents with bradycardia, severe nausea, and substernal pain. STEMI was
identified on the EKG. Which region of the heart is most likely involved?
Correct!
Inferior Wall
The inferior wall, fed by the right coronary artery is commonly associated with these symptoms.
Remember right equals rate as it is the blood supply for the SA and AV nodes in most patients.
pg. 1
,Dyspepsia is common in RCA territory injury due to vagal stimulation not typical of other areas.
Correct!
1 year
Remember than with pediatric patients with diabetes, the easiest way to remember the
evaluation schedule is to perform lipid checks is with annual physicals.
Question 4
pts
An 80-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset unilateral leg
pain and pallor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Deep vein thrombosisect!
Acute arterial occlusion
Cellulitis
Peripheral artery disease
Question 5
pts
An adult patient recently placed on angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for
hypertension returns with a report of a dry, persistent cough. On examination, no indication of
a respiratory problem is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Correct!
Switch to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
Obtain a chest X-ray with posterior-anterior and lateral views
pg. 2
,Continue the ACE inhibitor and prescribe a mild antitussive
Continue the current treatment regimen
Question 6
pts
A 65 year old alcoholic patient presents with a new onset of persistent palpitations and anxiety
for the past 3 days. Your monitor is applied and an irregularly irregular rhythm is noted. Which
of the following evaluations should be performed first in your treatment?
Ordering a BNP and Vitamin D level
Prescribing amiodarone 150mg IV bolus
Correct!
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram
After 48-72 hrs of atrial fibrillation, the presence of thrombus must be excluded before any rhythm-
modifying intervention. Transthoracic echo is the gold standard for a quick look for any clot burden,
most likely found in the left atrial appendage. Amiodarone is likely to convert the patient to a sinus
rhythm and needs to be done only after determining no evidence of thrombus is present. BNP and
vitamin D are inconsequential in the treatment of A-fib (TSH, serum K, and magnesium would be
valuable). Bilateral radial pulse checks are not assessed for a-fib, but rather for patients with concern for
aortic dissection and/or vascular blockage (subclavian stenosis, thoracic outlet syndrome, etc)
Palpating pulses bilaterally to identify unilateral pulse deficit
Question 7
pts
A 70-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden-onset leftsided
weakness and slurred speech. What is the most likely diagnosis?
pg. 3
, Seizure
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Myocardial infarction (MI)
Correct!
Stroke
The patient with a history of atrial fibrillation for over 48 hours without anticoagulation is at risk
of an embolic stroke, secondary to mobilization of a thrombus (90% of which occur in the left
atrial appendage). A patient exhibiting signs of a stroke such as unilateral weakness and slurred
speech, in addition to being evaluated for stroke with cranial imaging to rule out a hemorrhagic
etiology, should also be evaluated for a cardiac etiology as noted above with an
echocardiogram.
Question 8
pts
What is the key long-term benefit of using carvedilol for patients with coronary artery disease
and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)?
Reduction in cardiac output
Increase in libido
Baseline reduction of blood pressure
Correct!
Potential increase in ejection fraction
EF increase is a key reason for using carvedilol over metoprolol for patients with low EF states. Libido
unfortunately can be negatively impacted by any beta blocker. Cardiac output should only improve with
pg. 4
